A nurse is caring for a client receiving mechanical ventilation via an endotracheal (ET) tube. The high-pressure alarm is beeping, and the client is experiencing respiratory distress. The nurse is unable to determine the cause of the alarm. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Re-evaluate the client for an ET cuff leak.
Assess for disconnected tubing.
Decrease the ventilator flow rate.
Deliver breaths manually with a resuscitation bag.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason
Re-evaluate the client for an ET cuff leak is not appropriate. While an ET cuff leak could contribute to respiratory distress, the immediate concern is the high-pressure alarm, which indicates increased resistance to airflow. The nurse should address the alarm first and then assess for other potential causes, including an ET cuff leak.
Choice B reason:
Option B: Assess for disconnected tubing is not appropriate. A disconnected tubing is also a potential cause of the high-pressure alarm. However, before checking for disconnected tubing, the nurse should first deliver manual breaths with a resuscitation bag to provide the client with adequate ventilation.
Choice C reason:
Decrease the ventilator flow rate is not appropriate. Decreasing the ventilator flow rate might not be the appropriate action in this situation, as the high-pressure alarm indicates increased resistance, which might require increased flow to overcome. Additionally, the nurse should not delay taking immediate action by adjusting ventilator settings without knowing the specific cause of the high-pressure alarm.
Choice D reason:
When the high-pressure alarm is beeping, and the client is experiencing respiratory distress, it indicates that there is an increased resistance to airflow within the ventilator circuit or the client's airway. This can be a life-threatening situation, and immediate action is required.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Implement fall precautions for the client. This is correct because risperidone can cause orthostatic hypotension, which can increase the risk of falls and injuries. The nurse should advise the client to change positions slowly, avoid alcohol and dehydration, and use assistive devices as needed.
B. Monitor the client's thyroid function. This is incorrect because risperidone does not affect thyroid function. The nurse should monitor the client's thyroid function if they are taking lithium, which can cause hypothyroidism.
C. Place the client on a fluid restriction. This is incorrect because risperidone does not cause fluid retention or overload. The nurse should encourage adequate fluid intake and monitor the client's fluid balance.
D. Discontinue the medication if hallucinations occur. This is incorrect because hallucinations are a symptom of schizophrenia, not a side effect of risperidone. The nurse should not discontinue the medication abruptly, as this can cause withdrawal symptoms and relapse of psychosis. The nurse should assess the client's response to the medication, report any adverse effects, and adjust the dosage as prescribed.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
- Capillary refill time is a test that measures how quickly the blood returns to the tissues after pressure is applied and released on a nailbed or a fingertip. It is an indicator of peripheral circulation and tissue perfusion.
- To perform the capillary refill test, the examiner should press firmly on the nailbed or fingertip for a few seconds, then release the pressure and observe how long it takes for the normal color to return. The normal capillary refill time is less than 2 seconds .
- In the photo, the practical nurse (PN) applies and then releases pressure to a client's fingernail. Normal nail color returns in 2 seconds, which indicates a normal capillary refill time and adequate peripheral circulation. This is a normal and expected finding that does not require any further action, except for documentation.
- Therefore, option D is the correct answer, as it reflects the appropriate and standard nursing practice of documenting any assessment findings in the client's chart. Option D also implies that the PN does not need to report, observe, or repeat anything else related to the capillary refill test, as it was done correctly and yielded normal results.
- Options A, B, and C are incorrect answers, as they do not reflect the appropriate or necessary actions for the PN to take after performing a normal capillary refill test.
Option A is incorrect because there are no abnormal findings to report to the charge nurse, as the capillary refill time was normal.
Option B is incorrect because blanching of the nailbed is what happens when pressure is applied, not when
it is released, and it is not an abnormal finding.
Option C is incorrect because repeating the process with a different nailbed is not necessary, as the capillary refill time was normal on the first nailbed.
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