A nurse is caring for a client receiving mechanical ventilation via an endotracheal (ET) tube. The high-pressure alarm is beeping, and the client is experiencing respiratory distress. The nurse is unable to determine the cause of the alarm. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Re-evaluate the client for an ET cuff leak.
Assess for disconnected tubing.
Decrease the ventilator flow rate.
Deliver breaths manually with a resuscitation bag.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason
Re-evaluate the client for an ET cuff leak is not appropriate. While an ET cuff leak could contribute to respiratory distress, the immediate concern is the high-pressure alarm, which indicates increased resistance to airflow. The nurse should address the alarm first and then assess for other potential causes, including an ET cuff leak.
Choice B reason:
Option B: Assess for disconnected tubing is not appropriate. A disconnected tubing is also a potential cause of the high-pressure alarm. However, before checking for disconnected tubing, the nurse should first deliver manual breaths with a resuscitation bag to provide the client with adequate ventilation.
Choice C reason:
Decrease the ventilator flow rate is not appropriate. Decreasing the ventilator flow rate might not be the appropriate action in this situation, as the high-pressure alarm indicates increased resistance, which might require increased flow to overcome. Additionally, the nurse should not delay taking immediate action by adjusting ventilator settings without knowing the specific cause of the high-pressure alarm.
Choice D reason:
When the high-pressure alarm is beeping, and the client is experiencing respiratory distress, it indicates that there is an increased resistance to airflow within the ventilator circuit or the client's airway. This can be a life-threatening situation, and immediate action is required.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A.Addressing parental concerns is crucial, especially for informed consent. If the parents are not comfortable or have unresolved questions, it could delay or prevent the surgery from proceeding.
B.While this blood pressure is slightly elevated, it is not an immediate concern that would typically prevent surgery.
C.Although severe pain is important to manage, it may not require immediate reporting unless it is unmanageable or indicates a serious problem.
D.While the lack of voiding in an immobile patient is a concern and could indicate urinary retention, it is not necessarily afinding that would prevent surgery.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Incorrect. The lithotomy position is not appropriate for this procedure, as it can cause discomfort and embarrassment to the client. The nurse should place the client in a left lateral Sims' position with the right knee flexed for better access to the rectum and to reduce pressure on the abdominal organs.
B. Incorrect. The nurse should avoid eliciting a vagal response, as it can cause bradycardia, hypotension, and syncope in some clients. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs and stop the procedure if signs of vagal stimulation occur.
C. Incorrect. Oral bisacodyl is a stimulant laxative that can cause abdominal cramping, diarrhea, and electrolyte imbalance. It is not indicated for fecal impaction, as it can worsen the condition by increasing the bulk and hardness of the stool. The nurse should administer an enema or a stool softener before attempting digital evacuation.
D. Correct. The nurse should insert a lubricated gloved finger and advance along the rectal wall, breaking up the stool and removing it in small pieces. The nurse should use gentle pressure and avoid injuring the rectal mucosa. The nurse should also explain the procedure to the client and obtain informed consent before performing it.
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