A nurse is teaching about adverse effects with a client who is starting to take captopril. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication to report to the provider?
Tinnitus
Cough
Polyuria
Blurred vision
The Correct Answer is B

- A is incorrect because tinnitus, or ringing in the ears, is not an adverse effect of captopril, but rather a symptom of other conditions such as ear infection, noise exposure, or medication toxicity.
- B is correct because cough is a serious adverse effect of captopril, which is an angiotensinconverting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that can cause angioedema, or swelling of the airways.
- C is incorrect because polyuria, or excessive urination, is not an adverse effect of captopril, but rather a symptom of other conditions such as diabetes mellitus, diabetes insipidus, or diuretic use.
- D is incorrect because blurred vision is not an adverse effect of captopril, but rather a symptom of other conditions such as eye strain, refractive error, or cataract.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Jaundice.
Rationale:
- A. Weight loss is not a common or serious adverse effect of valproic acid. Valproic acid can cause weight gain, not weight loss.
- B. Jaundice is a sign of liver damage, which is a serious and potentially fatal adverse effect of valproic acid. Valproic acid can impair fatty acid metabolism and mitochondrial function, leading to hepatotoxicity and steatosis. The nurse should monitor the client's liver function tests and report any signs of jaundice, such as yellowing of the skin or eyes, dark urine, or clay-colored stools .
- C. Bradycardia is not a common or serious adverse effect of valproic acid. Valproic acid can cause cardiac arrhythmias, but they are usually tachycardic, not bradycardic.
- D. Polyuria is not a common or serious adverse effect of valproic acid. Valproic acid can cause hypernatremia and hypocalcemia, which can affect urine output, but polyuria is not a specific symptom of these electrolyte imbalances.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
- A. Incorrect. A 1-inch needle may not be long enough to reach the muscle layer in an obese client, which may result in subcutaneous injection and reduced absorption of the medication.
- B. Incorrect. A 45° angle may not be appropriate for an IM injection, as it may cause the needle to enter at an oblique angle and miss the muscle layer or hit a bone or nerve.
- C. Correct. The ventrogluteal site is preferred for IM injections in obese clients, as it has less subcutaneous fat and a large muscle mass that can accommodate larger volumes of medication.
- D. Incorrect. Pinching the skin up during injection may cause the needle to enter at a shallow angle and deposit the medication in the subcutaneous tissue instead of the muscle layer.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
