A nurse is caring for an infant who has gastroenteritis.
Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Sunken fontanels and dry mucous membranes
Temperature 38° C (100.4° F) and pulse rate 124/min.
Decreased appetite and irritability.
Pale and a 24-hr fluid deficit of 30 mL.
The Correct Answer is A
These are signs of severe dehydration in an infant, which can be life-threatening and should be reported to the provider immediately. The infant may need intravenous fluids and electrolytes to restore hydration and prevent complications.
Choice B is wrong because a temperature of 38° C (100.4° F) and pulse rate of 124/min are not abnormal for an infant and do not indicate severe dehydration. These are common findings in an infant who has gastroenteritis, which is an inflammation of the stomach and intestines caused by a virus, bacteria, or parasite.
Choice C is wrong because decreased appetite and irritability are also common findings in an infant who has gastroenteritis, but they do not indicate severe dehydration. The nurse should encourage oral rehydration with fluids such as breast milk, formula, or oral electrolyte solution.
Choice D is wrong because pale skin and a 24-hr fluid deficit of 30 mL are not signs of severe dehydration in an infant.
A fluid deficit of 30 mL is less than 1 oz and is not significant for an infant who weighs about 10 kg (22 lbs). A fluid deficit of more than 10% of body weight would indicate severe dehydration.
Normal ranges for vital signs in infants are as follows:
- Temperature: 36.5° C to 37.5° C (97.7° F to 99.5° F)
- Pulse rate: 100 to 160/min
- Respiratory rate: 30 to 60/min
- Blood pressure: 65/41 to 100/50 mm Hg
Normal ranges for fluid intake and output in infants are as follows:
- Fluid intake: 100 to 150 mL/kg/day
- Fluid output: 1 to 2 mL/kg/hr
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choiced. A client who is taking warfarin and has an INR of 1.8.
Choice A rationale:
An induration after a Mantoux test indicates a positive reaction, but it does not necessarily require immediate follow-up unless the induration is significant and the client has risk factors for tuberculosis.
Choice B rationale:
Sodium phosphate is commonly used as a bowel preparation for colonoscopy. This does not typically require follow-up unless the client experiences adverse effects such as dehydration or electrolyte imbalance.
Choice C rationale:
A potassium level of 3.6 mEq/L is within the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L). Therefore, this finding does not require follow-up.
Choice D rationale:
An INR of 1.8 for a client taking warfarin is below the therapeutic range for most indications (typically 2.0-3.0). This requires follow-up to adjust the warfarin dosage to achieve the desired anticoagulation effect.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D. Shuffling gait. This is because shuffling gait is a common manifestation of pseudoparkinsonism, which is a condition that mimics the symptoms of Parkinson’s disease due to the use of certain medications that block dopamine receptors, such as haloperidol. Pseudoparkinsonism can cause slowed movements, muscle stiffness, tremor, and postural instability.
Choice A. Nonreactive pupils is wrong because this is not a typical feature of pseudoparkinsonism or Parkinson’s disease.
Nonreactive pupils can be caused by other conditions, such as brain injury, drugs, or eye diseases.
Choice B. Serpentine limb movement is wrong because this is a characteristic of tardive dyskinesia, another drug-induced movement disorder that can result from long-term use of dopamine receptor blocking agents. Tardive dyskinesia causes involuntary movements of the face, tongue, and limbs that are often writhing or twisting.
Choice C. Smacking lips is wrong because this is also a sign of tardive dyskinesia, not pseudoparkinsonism. Smacking lips is one of the orofacial movements that can occur in tardive dyskinesia due to abnormal muscle contractions.
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