A nurse is assessing the fontanels of an 8-month-old infant. Which of the following findings should the nurse recognize as an expected finding
The anterior fontanel is open.
Both fontanels are the same size.
The posterior fontanel is open.
Both fontanels show moulding
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason
The anterior fontanel is open is the correct answer. An expected finding in an 8-month-old infant is that the anterior fontanel (the soft spot on the top of the baby's head) is open. The fontanelles are spaces between the bones of an infant's skull that allow for the baby's brain to grow and the skull to mould during birth.
The anterior fontanel typically remains open until the baby is around 18 to 24 months old, with the closure process starting sometime after 9 months of age. Therefore, at 8 months of age, it is normal for the anterior fontanel to still be open.
Choice B reason:
Both fontanels are the same size is incorrect. Both fontanels are usually not the same size. The anterior fontanel is larger and diamond-shaped, while the posterior fontanel is smaller and triangular.
Choice C reason:
The posterior fontanel is open is incorrect. The posterior fontanel, located at the back of the baby's head, usually closes earlier than the anterior fontanel. It typically closes within the first few months after birth, so it is not expected to be open at 8 months of age.
Choice D reason
Both fontanels show molding is incorrect. Molding refers to the temporary shaping of the baby's head during birth due to the pressure exerted during the passage through the birth canal. By 8 months of age, the molding typically resolves, and the baby's head should have a more rounded appearance.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Ketorolac is incorrect because it is an NSAID that is used for short-term pain relief. It has a higher risk of causing irritation to the stomach lining and is not recommended for clients with a history of peptic ulcers.
Choice B reason:
Acetaminophen is the correct answer. When caring for a client who reports a headache and has a history of a peptic ulcer, the nurse should administer Acetaminophen. Acetaminophen is an analgesic (pain reliever) and antipyretic (fever reducer) that does not have anti-inflammatory properties. It is a suitable option for pain relief in clients with a history of peptic ulcers because it is less likely to cause irritation to the stomach lining compared to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
Choice C reason
Aspirin is not appropriate: Aspirin is an NSAID with anti-inflammatory, analgesic, and antipyretic properties. Like other NSAIDs, it can increase the risk of stomach irritation and should be avoided in clients with a history of peptic ulcers.
Choice D reason:
Ibuprofen is not the right option: Ibuprofen is another NSAID commonly used for pain relief and reducing inflammation and fever. Like other NSAIDs, it can irritate the stomach lining and is not recommended for clients with a history of peptic ulcers.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A. Deep tendon reflexes 2+. This indicates that the client is receiving the therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, which is to prevent seizures by reducing neuromuscular excitability.
Magnesium sulfate is a mineral that is given intravenously to women with preeclampsia, a condition of high blood pressure and protein in the urine during pregnancy, to reduce the risk of seizures or eclampsia. It can also prolong pregnancy for up to two days, allowing drugs that speed up the baby’s lung development to be administered.
Choice B is wrong because 1+ proteinuria via urine dipstick is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a sign of preeclampsia.
Proteinuria indicates that the kidneys are not working properly and are leaking protein into the urine. Magnesium sulfate does not improve the outcomes for the baby and can cause side effects such as respiratory depression for the mother.
Choice C is wrong because pulse rate 100/min is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a possible side effect.
Magnesium sulfate can cause vasodilation, which lowers blood pressure and increases heart rate. A normal pulse rate for an adult is between 60 and 100 beats per minute. A pulse rate higher than 100 beats per minute may indicate tachycardia, which can be caused by various factors such as anxiety, dehydration, fever, infection, or medication.
Choice D is wrong because urine output 20 mL/hr is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a sign of kidney failure. A normal urine output for an adult is between 800 and 2000 mL per day, or about 30 to 80 mL per hour. A urine output lower than 30 mL per hour may indicate oliguria, which can be caused by various factors such as dehydration, blood loss, shock, or kidney damage. Magnesium sulfate can cause renal toxicity if given in high doses or for prolonged periods.
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