A: The Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality is a federal agency that conducts research on health care quality, access, and outcomes. It provides specific data on migrant farmworkers.

B: The National Institutes of Health is a federal agency that supports biomedical and behavioral research. It does not provide specific data on migrant farmworkers.

C: The Department of Agriculture is a federal agency that oversees agricultural production, food safety, nutrition, and rural development. It does not collects comprehensivedata on migrant and seasonal farmworkers, such as their demographics, health status, and access to health care.

D: The World Health Organization is an international organization that works to improve global health and coordinate responses to health emergencies. It does not provide specific data on migrant farmworkers in the United States.

Answer is:Department of Agriculture. The Department of Agriculture is a federal agency that oversees agricultural production, food safety, nutrition, and rural development.It also collects and publishes data on migrant and seasonal farmworkers, such as their demographics, health status, and access to health care1.

Statement is wrong because: Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ) is an independent agency within the U.S.Department of Health and Human Services that conducts research to improve the quality, safety, efficiency, and effectiveness of health care2.National Institutes of Health (NIH) is a federal agency that supports biomedical research and public health initiatives3. World Health Organization (WHO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations that is concerned with international public health.

A. Hypoxemia is a condition of low oxygen levels in the blood. PEEP can actually improve oxygenation by preventing alveolar collapse and increasing functional residual capacity.

B. Tension pneumothorax is a life-threatening condition of air accumulation in the pleural space that causes increased intrathoracic pressure and compresses the lungs, heart, and great vessels. PEEP can increase the risk of tension pneumothorax by creating excessive positive pressure in the airways and alveoli.

C. Malignant hypertension is a severe form of high blood pressure that can cause organ damage and stroke. PEEP can cause a transient increase in blood pressure due to increased intrathoracic pressure, but it does not cause malignant hypertension.

D. Atelectasis is a condition of partial or complete lung collapse due to alveolar collapse or obstruction. PEEP can prevent or treat atelectasis by maintaining positive pressure in the airways and alveoli.

A. A client who has cellulitis and is receiving oral antibiotics every 8 hr has a mild to moderate infection that can be managed at home with proper wound care and medication adherence. The client does not require hospitalization unless there are signs of systemic infection or complications.

B. A client who is postoperative following an upper endoscopy procedure and is alert but does not have a gag reflex has a high risk of aspiration and airway obstruction due to impaired swallowing function. The client requires close monitoring and intervention until the gag reflex returns, which can take several hours or longer depending on the type and amount of anesthesia used.

C. A mother and their newborn 12 hr postdelivery have not completed the minimum recommended stay of 24 to 48 hours for uncomplicated vaginal deliveries or 72 to 96 hours for cesarean deliveries, according to the American Academy of Pediatrics and the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists. The mother and their newborn require assessment, education, support, and follow-up care to ensure their health and well-being.

D. A client who has lower extremity weakness and is newly admitted for observation has an undiagnosed condition that could indicate a serious neurological or vascular problem, such as stroke, spinal cord injury, or peripheral artery disease. The client requires diagnostic testing, evaluation, treatment, and rehabilitation to prevent further deterioration or complications.

Respiratory acidosis.

Rationale:

• A. Incorrect. The client does not have respiratory alkalosis because respiratory alkalosis is characterized by a low PaCO2 (less than 35 mm Hg) and a high pH (greater than 7.45).
• B. Incorrect. The client does not have metabolic alkalosis because metabolic alkalosis is characterized by a high HCO3 (greater than 26 mEq/L) and a high pH (greater than 7.45). - C. Correct. The client has respiratory acidosis because respiratory acidosis is characterized by a high PaCO2 (greater than 45 mm Hg) and a low pH (less than 7.35).
• D. Incorrect. The client does not have metabolic acidosis because metabolic acidosis is characterized by a low HCO3 (less than 22 mEq/L) and a low pH (less than 7.35).

A: A client who has cellulitis and is receiving oral antibiotics every 8 hr has a mild to moderate infection that can be managed at home with proper wound care and medication adherence. The client does not require hospitalization unless there are signs of systemic infection or complications.

B: A client who is postoperative following an upper endoscopy procedure and is alert but does not have a gag reflex has a high risk of aspiration and airway obstruction due to impaired swallowing function. The client requires close monitoring and intervention until the gag reflex returns, which can take several hours or longer depending on the type and amount of anesthesia used.

C: A mother and their newborn 12 hr postdelivery have not completed the minimum recommended stay of 24 to 48 hours for uncomplicated vaginal deliveries or 72 to 96 hours for cesarean deliveries, according to the American Academy of Pediatrics and the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists. The mother and their newborn require assessment, education, support, and follow-up care to ensure their health and well-being.

D: A client who has lower extremity weakness and is newly admitted for observation has an undiagnosed condition that could indicate a serious neurological or vascular problem, such as stroke, spinal cord injury, or peripheral artery disease. The client requires diagnostic testing, evaluation, treatment, and rehabilitation to prevent further deterioration or complications.

A is incorrect because the client should stand with their feet together, not 1 foot apart, for the Romberg test.

B is incorrect because the client should hold their arms at their sides, not on their hips, for the Romberg test.

C is incorrect because the nurse should stand close to the client, not across the room, to prevent injury in case of a fall.

D is correct because the Romberg test involves checking the client's balance with their eyes open and then with their eyes closed.

Move the client to a room near the nurses' station.

• A. Keep the client's television on with the volume low: This is incorrect because it does not address the client's safety or agitation. The television might also be a source of confusion or stimulation for the client.
• B. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter to minimize interaction with the client: This is incorrect because it is an invasive and unnecessary procedure that increases the risk of infection and trauma. It also violates the client's dignity and autonomy.
• C. Consult the provider regarding administering a mild sedative on a schedule: This is incorrect because it is not the first action to take. The nurse should first assess the client's condition and identify possible causes of disorientation and combativeness, such as pain, infection, medication side effects, or delirium. Sedatives should be used as a last resort and only with informed consent.
• D. Move the client to a room near the nurses' station: This is correct because it allows for close observation and supervision of the client, which can prevent injury and promote safety. It also facilitates frequent interaction and reassurance from the staff, which can reduce anxiety and agitation.

Proceed with provision of medical care.

• A. Contact the facility's ethics committee: This is incorrect because it is not an urgent action and it does not address the client's immediate needs. The ethics committee can be consulted later if there are ethical dilemmas or conflicts regarding the client's care.
• B. Obtain consent from the client's employer: This is incorrect because it is not a valid source of consent. The employer has no legal or ethical authority to make decisions for the client, unless they are also a designated surrogate or proxy.
• C. Limit care to comfort measures: This is incorrect because it does not meet the standard of care for an emergency situation. The nurse has a duty to provide life-saving interventions for a client who is unconscious and requires emergency medical procedures, unless there is evidence of a valid advance directive that states otherwise.
• D. Proceed with provision of medical care: This is correct because it follows the principle of implied consent, which assumes that a reasonable person would consent to emergency treatment if they were able to do so. The nurse should document the circumstances and continue to search for family members or other sources of consent.

Ask the partner to list specific concerns.

• A. Evaluate the changes the partner requests: This is incorrect because it is not the first action to take. The charge nurse should first listen to and acknowledge the partner's complaints before evaluating any changes or solutions.
• B. Review the client's plan of care: This is incorrect because it is not the first action to take. The charge nurse should first understand what aspects of care are unsatisfactory for the partner and why they feel that way.
• C. Analyze other reports of poor care to look for trends: This is incorrect because it is not relevant to this situation. The charge nurse should focus on addressing this specific case of dissatisfaction rather than looking for general patterns or issues.
• D. Ask the partner to list specific concerns: This is correct because it shows respect and empathy for the partner and allows for clarification and communication of their expectations and needs. It also helps identify any gaps or misunderstandings in the client's care and facilitates problem-solving and resolution.

A is incorrect because the completion of the incident report should not be documented in the client's medical record, but in a separate file for quality improvement purposes.

B is correct because the time the medication was given is an essential fact related to the incident that should be documented in the client's medical record.

C is incorrect because the reason for the medication error should not be documented in the client's medical record, but in the incident report for analysis and prevention of future errors.

D is incorrect because the notification of the pharmacist should not be documented in the client's medical record, but in the incident report for follow-up and corrective actions.