A nurse must recommend clients for discharge in order to make room for several critically injured clients from a local disaster. Which of the following clients should the nurse recommend for discharge?

A client who has cellulitis and is receiving oral antibiotics every 8 hr

A client who is postoperative following an upper endoscopy procedure and is alert but does not have a gag reflex

A mother and their newborn 12 hr postdelivery

A client who has lower extremity weakness and is newly admitted for observation

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. A client who has cellulitis and is receiving oral antibiotics every 8 hr has a mild to moderate infection that can be managed at home with proper wound care and medication adherence. The client does not require hospitalization unless there are signs of systemic infection or complications.

B. A client who is postoperative following an upper endoscopy procedure and is alert but does not have a gag reflex has a high risk of aspiration and airway obstruction due to impaired swallowing function. The client requires close monitoring and intervention until the gag reflex returns, which can take several hours or longer depending on the type and amount of anesthesia used.

C. A mother and their newborn 12 hr postdelivery have not completed the minimum recommended stay of 24 to 48 hours for uncomplicated vaginal deliveries or 72 to 96 hours for cesarean deliveries, according to the American Academy of Pediatrics and the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists. The mother and their newborn require assessment, education, support, and follow-up care to ensure their health and well-being.

D. A client who has lower extremity weakness and is newly admitted for observation has an undiagnosed condition that could indicate a serious neurological or vascular problem, such as stroke, spinal cord injury, or peripheral artery disease. The client requires diagnostic testing, evaluation, treatment, and rehabilitation to prevent further deterioration or complications.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccination is recommended for adolescents and young adults to prevent HPV-related cancers and diseases. However, in the context of older adults, especially those who are not previously vaccinated, the priority shifts to other immunizations that are more relevant to their age group.

Choice B rationale:

Rotavirus vaccination is administered to infants to protect against rotavirus infections, which can cause severe diarrhea and dehydration. It is not a priority immunization for older adults. Older adults are at higher risk for certain diseases, and their immunization focus should be on vaccines that prevent those specific conditions.

Choice C rationale:

Diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis (DTaP) vaccination is essential for children and adults, especially for those who have not received a complete series of vaccinations. However, the question specifies older adults, and DTaP is typically administered to children. While it is crucial for healthcare providers and family members to stay up-to-date with their vaccinations, other immunizations are more pertinent for older adults.

Choice D rationale:

Herpes zoster vaccination (shingles vaccine) is recommended for adults aged 50 years and older. Herpes zoster is a painful rash caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, which also causes chickenpox. Older adults are at higher risk of developing shingles, and vaccination can reduce the likelihood of the disease and its complications. Therefore, the nurse should recommend the herpes zoster vaccine to the group of older adults as it aligns with their age and addresses a specific health risk they face.

A. A client who is at 33 weeks of gestation and has severe gestational hypertension B. A client who is at 16 weeks of gestation and has a hydatidiform mole C. A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and is experiencing vaginal bleeding D. A client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and has a positive group B streptococcal culture

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

- A. Correct. The nurse should initiate seizure precautions for a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation and has severe gestational hypertension, which is a blood pressure of 160/110 mm Hg or higher on two occasions at least 4 hr apart, or once with signs of end-organ damage. Severe gestational hypertension can lead to preeclampsia, which is a condition characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema, and can progress to eclampsia, which is a lifethreatening complication that involves seizures.

- B. Incorrect. The nurse does not need to initiate seizure precautions for a client who is at 16 weeks of gestation and has a hydatidiform mole, which is an abnormal growth of placental tissue that resembles grape-like clusters. A hydatidiform mole can cause vaginal bleeding, hyperemesis gravidarum, and elevated human chorionic gonadotropin levels, but it does not increase the risk of seizures.

- C. Incorrect. The nurse does not need to initiate seizure precautions for a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and is experiencing vaginal bleeding, which can have various causes such as placenta previa, placental abruption, or cervical trauma. Vaginal bleeding can indicate a potential hemorrhage, but it does not increase the risk of seizures.

- D. Incorrect. The nurse does not need to initiate seizure precautions for a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and has a positive group B streptococcal culture, which means that the client has bacteria in their vagina or rectum that can cause infection in the newborn during delivery. A positive group B streptococcal culture requires antibiotic prophylaxis during labor, but it does not increase the risk of seizures.

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