Maternity exam ( Samuel merit university)
Maternity exam ( Samuel merit university)
Total Questions : 51
Showing 10 questions Sign up for moreThe factors that affect the process of labor and birth, known commonly as the five Ps, include all except:
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Uterine contractions (powers) are essential for cervical dilation and fetal descent. They are involuntary smooth muscle contractions regulated by oxytocin and prostaglandins.
Choice B rationale
The fetus (passenger) significantly influences labor progression. Fetal size, position, and presentation affect the ease of passage through the birth canal.
Choice C rationale
Pressure is not considered one of the five Ps affecting labor and birth. The five Ps are powers, passenger, passageway, position, and psychological response.
Choice D rationale
The birth canal (passageway) includes the bony pelvis and soft tissues, which must adapt to allow the fetus to pass through during labor.
The slight overlapping of cranial bones or shaping of the fetal head during labor is called:
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Valsalva maneuver involves forced expiration against a closed airway, increasing intrathoracic pressure and commonly used to expel the fetus during the second stage of labor.
Choice B rationale
Ferguson’s reflex involves the release of oxytocin due to vaginal and cervical stretching, leading to stronger contractions during the second stage of labor.
Choice C rationale
Lightening refers to the descent of the fetus into the pelvis before labor begins, reducing pressure on the diaphragm and making breathing easier.
Choice D rationale
Molding is the slight overlapping of cranial bones, allowing the fetal head to change shape and fit through the birth canal during labor.
The slight overlapping of cranial bones or shaping of the fetal head during labor is called:
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Valsalva maneuver involves forced expiration against a closed airway, increasing intrathoracic pressure and used to aid in expelling the fetus during labor.
Choice B rationale
Ferguson’s reflex involves the release of oxytocin due to vaginal and cervical stretching, resulting in stronger contractions during the second stage of labor.
Choice C rationale
Lightening refers to the descent of the fetus into the pelvis before labor, relieving pressure on the diaphragm and easing breathing.
Choice D rationale
Molding is the slight overlapping of cranial bones, allowing the fetal head to shape and fit through the birth canal during labor.
Which occurrence is related to cervical dilation and effacement?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Bladder distention may cause discomfort and urinary issues but is not directly related to cervical dilation and effacement, which involve changes in the cervix to prepare for labor.
Choice B rationale
False labor involves irregular contractions that do not lead to cervical dilation and effacement. These are often called Braxton Hicks contractions and do not result in significant cervical changes.
Choice C rationale
The cervical mucus plug coming out, also known as the "bloody show," indicates that the cervix is beginning to dilate and efface, which are preparatory processes for labor to occur.
Choice D rationale
Lightening refers to the descent of the baby into the pelvis, which typically occurs in the later stages of pregnancy and does not directly involve cervical dilation and effacement processes.
Congenital disorders refer to conditions that are present at birth.
These disorders may be inherited and caused by environmental factors or maternal malnutrition.
Toxic exposures have the greatest effect on development between 15 and 60 days of gestation.
For the nurse to be able to conduct a complete assessment of the newly pregnant patient, she should understand the significance of exposure to known human teratogens.
These include (Select all that apply.)
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Drugs, such as thalidomide and isotretinoin, are known teratogens that can cause congenital anomalies by interfering with the normal development of the embryo or fetus during critical periods.
Choice B rationale
Infections, such as rubella and cytomegalovirus, are known teratogens that can lead to congenital disorders by causing inflammation, cell damage, and disruption of normal fetal development.
Choice C rationale
Radiation exposure, particularly in high doses during critical periods of organogenesis, is a known teratogen that can result in congenital anomalies such as microcephaly, growth restriction, and intellectual disability.
Choice D rationale
Maternal genetic conditions are not considered teratogens. Teratogens are external agents that cause developmental abnormalities, whereas genetic conditions are inherited and involve genetic mutations or chromosomal abnormalities.
A woman is 15 weeks pregnant with her first baby.
She asks how long it will be before she feels the baby move.
The best answer is:
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Quickening, the first fetal movements felt by the mother, typically occurs between 16 and 20 weeks of gestation, so she should expect to feel fluttering sensations within the next month.
Choice B rationale
At 15 weeks of gestation, it is too early for most first-time mothers to feel fetal movements. Quickening usually occurs between 16 and 20 weeks, so she has not missed the window.
Choice C rationale
While some fetal movements may be subtle, it is inaccurate to suggest that some babies are entirely quiet. Quickening is generally felt by most mothers between 16 and 20 weeks.
Choice D rationale
The baby is indeed moving, but fetal movements are usually not felt until 16 to 20 weeks of gestation in first-time pregnancies, so it is normal not to feel them yet at 15 weeks.
The nurse caring for the laboring woman should know that meconium is produced by:
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Meconium is produced by the fetal intestines. The intestines start to form meconium around the 16th week of gestation. Meconium is composed of shed cells, mucus, amniotic fluid, bile, and lanugo.
Choice B rationale
The placenta does not produce meconium. Its primary functions include nutrient transfer, gas exchange, and waste elimination, but it does not have the structures necessary for the production of meconium.
Choice C rationale
Amniotic fluid does not produce meconium. Amniotic fluid surrounds and protects the fetus but does not contain the components needed to create meconium. Instead, the fetus swallows and then excretes it into the intestines.
Choice D rationale
Fetal kidneys are responsible for filtering waste and producing urine, but they do not produce meconium. The production of meconium is a function of the intestines, not the kidneys.
The nurse caring for the laboring woman should know that meconium is produced by:
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Meconium is produced by the fetal intestines. The intestines start to form meconium around the 16th week of gestation. Meconium is composed of shed cells, mucus, amniotic fluid, bile, and lanugo.
Choice B rationale
The placenta does not produce meconium. Its primary functions include nutrient transfer, gas exchange, and waste elimination, but it does not have the structures necessary for the production of meconium.
Choice C rationale
Amniotic fluid does not produce meconium. Amniotic fluid surrounds and protects the fetus but does not contain the components needed to create meconium. Instead, the fetus swallows and then excretes it into the intestines.
Choice D rationale
Fetal kidneys are responsible for filtering waste and producing urine, but they do not produce meconium. The production of meconium is a function of the intestines, not the kidneys.
After the nurse completes nutritional counseling for a pregnant woman, she asks the client to repeat the instructions to assess the client’s understanding.
Which statement indicates that the client understands the role of protein in her pregnancy?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While protein is essential, it is not primarily responsible for preventing anemia. Iron and folic acid play significant roles in preventing anemia by supporting red blood cell production.
Choice B rationale
Protein is crucial for fetal growth and development. It provides essential amino acids necessary for the synthesis of fetal tissues and organs, ensuring proper growth during pregnancy.
Choice C rationale
Protein intake alone does not prevent gestational diabetes. Carbohydrate metabolism and hormonal regulation are more directly related to the development and management of gestational diabetes.
Choice D rationale
Protein intake during pregnancy does not affect the development of strong teeth post-birth. Dental health is influenced by calcium, phosphorus, and other vitamins, not directly by protein consumption during pregnancy.
A new father wants to know what medication was put into his infant’s eyes and why it is needed.
How does the nurse explain the purpose of the erythromycin ophthalmic ointment?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Erythromycin ophthalmic ointment does not prevent the infant's eyelids from sticking together; it is not its primary purpose and does not aid in vision enhancement.
Choice B rationale
Erythromycin ophthalmic ointment is used to prevent gonorrheal infection acquired during birth, protecting the infant’s eyes from potential infection that can cause blindness.
Choice C rationale
Erythromycin does not prevent exudate from invading the tear ducts, nor does it lead to dry eyes. Its primary function is antimicrobial.
Choice D rationale
Erythromycin ophthalmic ointment is not specific to Staphylococcus and does not directly destroy infectious exudate. It prevents infections like gonorrhea.
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