A. Reporting the incident to the manager of the pharmacy is the appropriate action to ensure that the medication error is addressed and investigated properly, as this can help prevent future occurrences.
B. Incident reports should not be placed in the client's medical record, as they are separate documents meant for internal review and quality improvement.
C. Documenting the doubled dose in the client's medical record does not fulfill the legal requirements for reporting medication errors and could mislead future care providers about the medication administration history.
D. Contacting the nurse from the previous shift may be necessary for understanding the situation, but the priority is to report the incident properly to ensure patient safety.

A. Setting specific times for low-priority tasks may not be the most efficient use of time, as client needs can change throughout the shift.
B. Performing complicated tasks independently may not be safe, as it is essential to collaborate with other healthcare team members when necessary for patient safety.
C. Postponing checking for new prescriptions until medications are due could lead to delays in care and negatively impact client outcomes; it's important to check for updates promptly.
D. Clustering care activities for each client promotes efficiency, minimizes interruptions, and helps ensure that all care needs are met in a timely manner.

A. While paranoia in a client with dementia can be concerning, it is not immediately life-threatening and may require additional support or medication adjustments.
B. Itching after receiving a dose of cefaclor may indicate an allergic reaction, but further assessment would be needed to determine the severity.
C. A weight gain of 1 kg (2.2 lb) in a client with heart failure should be monitored, but it is not an immediate concern unless accompanied by other symptoms of fluid overload.
D. The progression of a pressure ulcer from stage II to stage III indicates a worsening condition that requires urgent intervention to prevent further complications and potential infection, making it the highest priority to report.

A. Removing gloves before leaving an isolation room is appropriate practice and helps prevent the spread of infection.
B. Filling a basin with water at 40° C (104° F) is too hot for foot care and could lead to burns or injury; water temperature for foot care should be comfortably warm, typically around 37°C (98.6°F).
C. Instructing a client to look down at their feet when being assisted to ambulate is a safety measure that can help the client maintain balance and avoid tripping.
D. Applying water-soluble lubricant to the nares of a client receiving oxygen is a standard practice to prevent dryness and does not require intervention.

A. Encouraging the expression of feelings about illness can be a part of patient-centered care, but it does not fully encompass the role of advocacy, which involves more comprehensive support for the client's needs.
B. Reinforcing teaching about prescribed medications is important but falls under education and patient care rather than advocacy itself.
C. Collaboration with other team members is essential in providing holistic care but does not solely represent advocacy, which focuses more on the client's interests.
D. Supporting the client's needs is the core of advocacy, as it involves standing up for the client's rights, preferences, and well-being within the healthcare system.

A. Not providing an interpreter for a client who speaks a different language may violate the client's right to understand their care, leading to potential legal issues regarding informed consent and patient safety.
B. A provider speaking to a client alone about suspected partner violence is appropriate as it ensures the client's privacy and safety during a sensitive discussion.
C. Prescribing a kosher meal tray for a client who practices the Orthodox Jewish faith is respectful and meets the dietary needs of the client, which is not a legal issue.
D. A client requesting that a nurse provide information to their partner is not inherently a legal issue, but the nurse must ensure that the client has consented to share their information to protect confidentiality.

A. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter can be performed by licensed practical nurses (LPNs) under the supervision of an RN, so this task does not need to be reassigned.
B. Administering heparin subcutaneously is a task that can be performed by LPNs, so it does not require reassignment to an RN.
C. Suctioning a client's new tracheostomy is a more complex procedure that requires advanced skills and assessment, making it appropriate for an RN rather than an LPN.
D. Classifying a pressure ulcer is a task that can be done by both RNs and LPNs, so it does not need to be reassigned.

A. Smoke alarm batteries should be changed at least once a year, not every 2 years, so this statement reflects a misunderstanding of fire safety recommendations.
B. Spraying the extinguisher from side to side at the base of the fire is the correct technique for using a fire extinguisher, indicating the client understands proper fire safety.
C. Attempting to extinguish a fire before calling the fire department can be dangerous; the client should call for help first if the fire is large or spreading.
D. A Class A extinguisher is suitable for ordinary combustibles like wood and paper, but for electrical fires, a Class C extinguisher should be used, indicating a misunderstanding of fire extinguisher types.

A. While the nurse's notes may include observations about the client's condition, recording that an incident report was filed does not provide pertinent details regarding the client's care and is not appropriate.
B. Incident reports are confidential documents and should not be shared with the client's family, so providing a copy of the report is inappropriate.
C. Documenting the facts about the incident in the medical record is essential to provide a complete account of the client's care and any resulting changes or observations. This documentation is important for continuity of care and legal purposes.
D. Incident reports should not be placed in the medical record, as they are separate documents intended for internal review and quality assurance purposes.

A. QD (every day) is not an approved abbreviation due to the potential for misinterpretation, so it should not be used.
B. HS (at bedtime) is also not recommended as it can be confused with "half-strength," so it is not an approved abbreviation.
C. SQ (subcutaneous) is not commonly used in current practice as abbreviations may lead to errors; the term should be written out as "subcut" or "subcutaneously."
D. PO (by mouth) is an accepted and approved abbreviation used to indicate that a medication is to be taken orally, making it the correct choice for inclusion in the in-service.