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because African American ethnicity is not a risk factor for jaundice. In fact, Asian, European, or native American ethnicity are more associated with jaundice.

because meconium-stained amniotic fluid is not a risk factor for jaundice. Meconium is the first stool of the baby and it may indicate fetal distress, but it does not affect the bilirubin level.

because bottle feeding is not a risk factor for jaundice. In fact, breastfeeding is more associated with jaundice due to dehydration and poor caloric intake.

because the erectile ability of the penis is not affected by circumcision and is not a priority for discharge planning.

because the position of the urethral opening on the penis is not related to circumcision and should be assessed at birth, not at discharge.

because the presence of a small amount of white-yellow exudate around the glans tissue is normal and expected after circumcision. It is part of the healing process and does not indicate infection. The nurse should instruct the parents on how to care for the circumcised penis and when to seek medical attention if there are signs of complications.

because the erectile ability of the penis is not affected by circumcision and is not a priority for discharge planning.

because checking the patient’s urine for glucose content will not help determine if the patient is leaking amniotic fluid or urine. Glucose content may be elevated in patients with gestational diabetes, but this is not related to the patient’s complaint.

because obtaining a specimen of the patient’s vaginal secretions for culture will not help determine if the patient is leaking amniotic fluid or urine. Culture may be done to check for infections, but this is not the initial action that the nurse should take.

Choice A is wrong because shortness of breath is not a sign of early pregnancy. It may occur later in pregnancy due to the growing uterus pressing on the diaphragm.

Choice B is wrong because episodes of loss of consciousness are not a sign of early pregnancy. They may indicate a serious condition such as anemia, dehydration, or hypoglycemia that requires medical attention.

Choice C is wrong because spotting is not a sign of early pregnancy.
It may be a sign of implantation bleeding, which occurs when the fertilized egg attaches to the lining of the uterus. However, implantation bleeding is usually much lighter and shorter than a normal period.

Choice A is wrong because sole creases that cover only the anterior one-third of the foot are characteristic of a preterm newborn, not a post-mature one.

Choice B is wrong because vernix caseosa is abundant in preterm newborns and decreases as gestational age increases. A post-mature newborn would have little or no vernix caseosa on the skin.

Choice D is wrong because a large amount of fine, downy hair (lanugo) on the back and shoulders is also typical of a preterm newborn, not a post-mature one. Lanugo usually disappears by 36 weeks of gestation. A post-mature newborn would have little or no lanugo on the body.

Choice A is wrong because assessing the patient’s urine for acetone is not relevant to the side effects of epidural anesthesia. Acetone in urine can indicate diabetic ketoacidosis, a complication of diabetes that occurs when the body breaks down fat for energy due to lack of insulin.
However, this is not related to epidural anesthesia.

Choice B is wrong because monitoring the patient’s deep tendon reflexes is not relevant to the side effects of epidural anesthesia. Deep tendon reflexes can be affected by magnesium sulfate, a medication used to prevent seizures in patients with preeclampsia (a condition characterized by high blood pressure and proteinuria in pregnancy).
However, this is not related to epidural anesthesia.

Choice C is wrong because assessing the patient’s pupillary accommodation is not relevant to the side effects of epidural anesthesia.
Pupillary accommodation is the ability of the eye to adjust its focus from distant to near objects. It can be impaired by drugs that affect the nervous system, such as opioids or anticholinergics.

Choice A is wrong because increased Babinski reflex is not a side effect of magnesium sulfate.
The Babinski reflex is a normal response in infants, but abnormal in adults.
It occurs when the big toe bends upward and the other toes fan out when the sole of the foot is stroked. Magnesium sulfate can cause poor reflexes, but not specifically the Babinski reflex.

Choice B is wrong because diarrhea is not a side effect of magnesium sulfate when given intravenously or intramuscularly. Diarrhea can occur when magnesium sulfate is taken orally as a laxative, but that is not the case in this question.

Choice C is wrong because tetany is not a side effect of magnesium sulfate.
Tetany is a condition that causes muscle spasms and cramps due to low levels of calcium in the blood. Magnesium sulfate can actually cause hypocalcemia, which means low levels of calcium in the blood, but this does not usually result in tetany. Tetany is more likely to occur when there is low magnesium in the blood, which is called hypomagnesemia.

Choice A is wrong because it measures the frequency of contractions, not the duration.
The frequency is the time between the start of one contraction and the start of the next one.

Choice B is wrong because it measures only half of the duration of a contraction.
The middle of a contraction is when the uterine muscle reaches its peak intensity and then starts to relax.

Choice D is wrong because it measures both the duration and the interval of contractions.
The interval is the time between the end of one contraction and the start of the next one.
Normal ranges for contractions during labor are:
• Duration: 30 to 90 seconds
• Frequency: 2 to 5 minutes apart
• Interval: 30 to 120 seconds

Choice A is wrong because herpes simplex II is a viral infection that causes genital herpes, and it is not detected by the RPR test.

Choice C is wrong because gonorrhea is a bacterial infection caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, and it is also not detected by the RPR test.

Choice D is wrong because condylomata are genital warts caused by human papillomavirus (HPV), and they are not detected by the RPR test either.
The RPR test is a screening test, and it can give false-positive results due to other conditions or infections. Therefore, a positive RPR test should always be confirmed by a more specific treponemal test, such as TPPA or FTA-ABS. The RPR test can also be used to monitor the treatment response of syphilis, as the antibody levels should decrease after effective antibiotic therapy.

Choice A is wrong because the amount of sexual experience that the patient has had is not relevant to determine the patient’s knowledge base.
It may also make the patient feel uncomfortable or judged.

Choice B is wrong because the type of contraceptive that the patient’s friends are using is not a reliable source of information.
Different methods may have different advantages and disadvantages for different people.
The nurse should provide evidence-based information and guidance on various options.

Choice D is wrong because the method of contraception that the patient believes will provide protection from sexually transmitted diseases may not be accurate or effective.