Review ATI RN Comprehensive predictor 2023 Retake 1

Exam Review

ATI RN Comprehensive predictor 2023 Retake 1

Share This Link

Share on social media

Facebook

Messager

WhatsApp

Share URL
Copy

We are excited to announce the release of a NEW VERSION OF THE SYSTEM! To benefit from the latest features, improvements, and component updates, please switch to the new system as soon as possible.

Visit Latest Version

Total Questions : 188

Showing 20 questions, Sign in for more

Question 1:

An older client with a history of heart failure is admitted with influenza and requests assistance to sit up in bed to eat lunch. The nurse observes the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) wearing a gown and gloves to assist the client.

Which action should the nurse take?

A. Review the need for the UAP to wear a face mask while in close contact with the client. B. Remind the UAP to apply a fitted respirator mask before entering the client's room. C. Assign the UAP to provide care for another client and assume full care of the client. D. Instruct the UAP to notify the nurse of any changes in the client's respiratory status.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

The client has influenza, which is a respiratory illness that can be transmitted through droplets when the infected person coughs, sneezes, or talks. The UAP is in close contact with the client while assisting them to sit up in bed to eat lunch. Therefore, it is necessary for the UAP to wear a face mask in addition to a gown and gloves to prevent the spread of the virus.This is in line with the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines, which recommend that healthcare personnel wear a face mask when they are in the same room as a patient with suspected or confirmed influenza.

Choice B:

A fitted respirator mask is not necessary in this situation.According to the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), respirators are required for airborne diseases such as tuberculosis, but not for influenza, which is a droplet-transmitted disease. Therefore, reminding the UAP to apply a fitted respirator mask before entering the client’s room is not the most appropriate action.

Choice C:

Assigning the UAP to provide care for another client and assuming full care of the client is not the most appropriate action in this situation. The UAP is already wearing a gown and gloves, which are part of the standard precautions for any patient care.The UAP just needs to add a face mask to their personal protective equipment (PPE) to safely assist the client.

Choice D:

Instructing the UAP to notify the nurse of any changes in the client’s respiratory status is always a good practice. However, it does not address the immediate need for the UAP to wear a face mask while in close contact with the client. Therefore, it is not the most appropriate action in this situation.

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 2:

A nurse is assessing a client who has a chest tube with a water seal drainage system.
Upon assessment, the nurse notes tidaling in the water seal.
Which of the following is an explanation for the tidaling?

A. The lung has re-expanded. B. There is a loop of tubing below the drainage system. C. The system is working properly. D. The tubing is partially obstructed by clots.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

The lung has re-expanded is incorrect. If the lung has re-expanded, there would be no tidaling in the water seal chamber, as the pleural space would be restored to its normal negative pressure.Tidaling indicates that there is still air or fluid in the pleural space that needs to be drained

Choice B:

There is a loop of tubing below the drainage system is incorrect. A loop of tubing below the drainage system would not cause tidaling in the water seal chamber, but it could cause fluid accumulation in the tubing, which could impair the drainage and increase the risk of infection.The tubing should be straight and free of kinks or loops

Choice C:

The system is working properly is correct. Tidaling in the water seal chamber means that the water level rises and falls with the patient’s respirations. This is normal and expected, as it indicates that the chest tube is patent and connected to the pleural space, and that the drainage system is airtight and preventing air or fluid from entering the pleural space.Tidaling should stop when the lung is fully re-expanded or the chest tube is clamped

Choice D:

The tubing is partially obstructed by clots is incorrect. If the tubing is partially obstructed by clots, there would be no tidaling in the water seal chamber, as the chest tube would not be able to drain the air or fluid from the pleural space. The water level in the water seal chamber would be stagnant, and the patient may experience respiratory distress.The tubing should be checked regularly for clots and milked gently if needed

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 3:

A charge nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about medication administration.
Which of the following information should the charge nurse include?

A. Avoid preparing medications for more than two clients at one time. B. Inform clients about the action of each medication prior to administration. C. Read medication labels at least two times prior to administration. D. Complete an incident report if a client vomits after taking a medication.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Avoid preparing medications for more than two clients at one time is a guideline aimed at reducing the risk of medication errors. However, it is not an absolute rule and may vary depending on the setting and resources available.

Choice B:

This practice is essential for patient education, ensuring that patients are informed about what medications they are taking and why, which can improve adherence and outcomes.

Choice C:

Reading medication labels at least two times prior to administration is a good practice to avoid errors, but it is not always specified as a standard requirement in medication administration guidelines.

Choice D:

Completing an incident report if a client vomits after taking a medication is necessary only if the vomiting is related to an adverse drug reaction or a medication error, not for routine vomiting.

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 4:

A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets 20 minutes ago.
The client is lethargic and has a respiratory rate of 10/min.
After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

A. Evaluate the client for further suicidal behavior. B. Administer flumazenil to the client. C. Monitor the client's IV site for thrombophlebitis. D. Initiate seizure precautions for the client.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

In the emergency department scenario described, the client has presented with symptoms suggestive of a diazepam overdose, indicating potential suicidal behavior. However, while evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior is an important aspect of comprehensive care, it is not the immediate priority in this situation. The client's lethargy and respiratory depression require urgent intervention to reverse the effects of diazepam overdose and stabilize their condition. Once the client's immediate medical needs are addressed, further assessment and intervention regarding suicidal behavior can be pursued as part of ongoing care and safety planning.

Choice B:

Administering flumazenil to the client is the most appropriate next action in the management of a diazepam overdose. Flumazenil, a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist, effectively reverses the sedative effects of benzodiazepines such as diazepam by competitively blocking benzodiazepine binding sites on the gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) receptor complex. By antagonizing the effects of diazepam, flumazenil can rapidly restore consciousness and respiratory drive in clients experiencing benzodiazepine-induced central nervous system depression, such as lethargy and hypoventilation. Prompt administration of flumazenil is crucial for preventing further respiratory compromise and potential respiratory arrest in overdose situations.

Choice C:

Monitoring the client's IV site for thrombophlebitis is an important aspect of nursing care during IV therapy; however, it is not the immediate priority in this scenario. While maintaining IV access is essential for administering medications and fluids, including flumazenil in this case, the urgent need to reverse the effects of diazepam overdose takes precedence over monitoring for IV complications. Thrombophlebitis can be assessed and managed concurrently with the administration of flumazenil and other aspects of the client's care once their immediate medical condition is stabilized.

Choice D:

Initiating seizure precautions for the client may be warranted in certain clinical situations, particularly if the client has a history of seizures or if there are concerns about potential withdrawal or rebound seizures following the administration of flumazenil. However, in the context of a diazepam overdose with central nervous system depression and lethargy, the primary focus is on reversing the effects of the overdose and restoring respiratory function. Seizure precautions can be implemented if indicated based on ongoing assessment and clinical judgment but are not the immediate next action following initiation of IV access and administration of flumazenil.

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 5:

A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for haloperidol.
Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report to the provider?

A. Weight gain. B. Dry mouth. C. Shuffling gait. D. Sedation.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Weight gain is a common side effect of many antipsychotic medications, including haloperidol. While it is important to monitor for this adverse effect, it is not specifically related to the extrapyramidal symptoms associated with haloperidol use.

Choice B:

Dry mouth is a common anticholinergic side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. Although it is important to monitor for this adverse effect, it is not specifically related to the extrapyramidal symptoms, such as parkinsonism, associated with haloperidol use.

Choice C:

This is the correct answer. Shuffling gait, or parkinsonism, is an extrapyramidal symptom associated with the use of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. It is a movement disorder characterized by a shuffling walk, rigidity, and tremors. Recognizing and reporting this symptom promptly is crucial, as it may indicate the development of a serious neurological condition called tardive dyskinesia.

Choice D:

Sedation is a common side effect of haloperidol and other antipsychotic medications. While it is important to monitor for sedation, it is not specifically related to the extrapyramidal symptoms associated with haloperidol use, as described in choice C.

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 6:

A nurse is caring for an adolescent client who has cystic fibrosis.
Which of the following actions should the nurse instruct the client to take prior to initiating postural drainage?

A. Eat a meal. B. Take pancrelipase. C. Use an albuterol inhaler. D. Complete oral hygiene.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Eating a meal prior to postural drainage is not recommended.Postural drainage uses gravity to help clear mucus from the lungs, and having a full stomach can cause discomfort and potentially lead to vomiting

Choice B:

Pancrelipase is a medication that replaces digestive enzymes produced by the pancreas.Most people with cystic fibrosis benefit from taking pancrelipase to aid their digestion 2. However, it is not specifically required prior to postural drainage

Choice C:

Using an albuterol inhaler prior to postural drainage is beneficial.Albuterol is a bronchodilator that helps open the airways, making it easier to clear mucus from the lungs. . This is why it’s recommended to use prior to postural drainage.

Choice D:

While maintaining good oral hygiene is important for overall health, it is not specifically required prior to postural drainage

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 7:

A nurse is preparing an in-service for a group of nurses about malpractice issues in nursing.
Which of the following examples should the nurse include in the teaching as an example of malpractice?

A. Administering potassium via IV bolus. B. Leaving a nasogastric tube clamped after administering oral medication. C. Placing a yellow bracelet on a client who is at risk for falls. D. Documenting communication with a provider in the progress notes of the client's medical record.

Answer and Explanation

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 8:

A nurse is performing a neurological examination on a client as part of a complete physical assessment.
The nurse should identify that cranial nerve XI is intact when the client performs which of the following actions?

A. Sticks his tongue out. B. Frowns symmetrically. C. Identifies a sour taste. D. Shrugs his shoulders.

Answer and Explanation

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 9:

A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving continuous enteral tube feedings through an open system.
Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

A. Maintain bed elevation at 20 degrees. B. Flush the tubing with 30 mL of water every 4 hr. C. Check for gastric residual every 12 hr. D. Place enough formula in the container to last 18 hr.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Maintaining bed elevation at 20 degrees is not recommended. The recommended bed elevation for patients receiving enteral tube feedings is at least 30 to 45 degrees.This is to prevent aspiration of the feeding solution into the lungs

Choice B:

Flushing the tubing with 30 mL of water every 4 hours is a recommended practice.This helps to maintain the patency of the feeding tube and prevent clogging

Choice C:

Checking for gastric residual every 12 hours is not sufficient.For patients receiving continuous tube feedings, gastric residual volume (GRV) should be monitored every 4 hours 1.This helps to assess tolerance to the feeding and prevent complications such as aspiration

Choice D:

Placing enough formula in the container to last 18 hours is not recommended.For an open system, the formula should be replaced every 4 hours to prevent bacterial growth

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 10:

A nurse is working with a client who has an anxiety disorder and is in the orientation phase of the therapeutic relationship.
Which of the following statements should the nurse make during this phase?

A. "We should establish our roles in the initial session." B. "Let me show you simple relaxation exercises to manage stress." C. "Let's talk about how you can change your response to stress." D. "We should discuss resources to implement in your daily life." .

Answer and Explanation

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 11:

A nurse manager is updating protocols for the use of belt restraints.
Which of the following guidelines should the nurse manager include?

A. Request a PRN restraint prescription for clients who are aggressive. B. Document the client's condition every 15 min. C. Attach the restraint to the bed's side rails. D. Remove the client's restraint every 4 hr.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

is wrong because requesting a PRN restraint prescription for clients who are aggressive might not be appropriate. The use of restraints should be based on a thorough assessment of the client's condition and should be the least restrictive method possible.

Choice B:

The nurse manager should include the guideline to document the client's condition every 15 minutes while using belt restraints. This is to ensure close monitoring of the client's physical and psychological well-being and to evaluate the ongoing need for restraint use.

Choice C:

is wrong because attaching the restraint to the bed's side rails poses a safety risk to the client, as the side rails can be lowered accidentally or intentionally, leading to potential injury.

Choice D:

is wrong because removing the client's restraint every 4 hours might not be appropriate, as it depends on the client's specific needs, facility policies, and state regulations. The nurse should follow appropriate guidelines for removing restraints and reassess the client's need for continued restraint use.

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 12:

A nurse is assessing a client who has a possible right pneumothorax.
Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

A. Paradoxical chest movement. B. Reduced right-sided breath sounds. C. High-pitched stridor. D. Intercostal retractions.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Paradoxical chest movement refers to the abnormal inward movement of the chest during inhalation and outward movement during exhalation. It is not a typical finding in pneumothorax. Instead, paradoxical chest movement is often observed in conditions such as flail chest.

Choice B:

Reduced right-sided breath sounds are a common finding in right pneumothorax. Air in the pleural space can cause lung collapse, leading to decreased or absent breath sounds on the affected side.

Choice C:

High-pitched stridor is a sound heard during inspiration and indicates upper airway obstruction, often due to conditions like croup or epiglottitis. It is not a characteristic finding in pneumothorax.

Choice D:

Intercostal retractions occur when the tissues between the ribs are pulled inward during inspiration. While retractions can be seen in various respiratory distress conditions, they are not specific to pneumothorax.

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 13:

A nurse is implementing seizure precautions for a client who has had a tonic-clonic seizure.
Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

A. Provide a tracheostomy tray at the bedside. B. Place the client in a supine position. C. Place a plastic tongue depressor at the client's bedside. D. Insert an IV saline lock.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Providing a tracheostomy tray at the bedside is not necessary for seizure precautions. While maintaining a patent airway is essential during a seizure, it can typically be managed with proper positioning and suctioning if necessary.

Choice B:

Placing the client in a supine position is not recommended for seizure precautions. Instead, the client should be placed in a semi-prone or lateral position to promote drainage of secretions and prevent aspiration.

Choice C:

Placing a plastic tongue depressor at the client's bedside is not an appropriate intervention. Attempting to insert an object into the client's mouth during a seizure can cause injury and is not recommended.

Choice D:

Inserting an IV saline lock is a relevant intervention for seizure precautions. It allows for prompt administration of medications or fluids if necessary. Establishing IV access is important, especially if antiepileptic medications need to be administered to control seizures.

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 14:

A nurse is admitting a client to a medical-surgical unit.
When performing medication reconciliation for the client, which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A. Include any adverse effects of the medications the client might develop. B. Compare new prescriptions with the list of medications the client reports. C. Exclude nutritional supplements from the list of medications the client reports. D. Encourage the client to make his own list after he returns to his home.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Including any adverse effects of the medications the client might develop is important but does not cover the entire scope of medication reconciliation. It is essential to compare new prescriptions with the list of current medications to prevent drug interactions, duplications, or omissions.

Choice B:

Comparing new prescriptions with the list of medications the client reports is the correct approach to medication reconciliation. This helps identify discrepancies, ensuring that the client's current medications are accurately documented and preventing medication errors.

Choice C:

Excluding nutritional supplements from the list of medications the client reports is incorrect. Nutritional supplements, herbal remedies, and over-the-counter medications are essential components of the medication list. These items can interact with prescribed medications and affect the client's overall health.

Choice D:

Encouraging the client to make his own list after he returns home is not recommended. Patients might not have complete knowledge of the medications they are taking, including dosages and frequencies. Relying solely on the patient-generated list can lead to inaccuracies and potential harm.

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 15:

A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who asks about the use of warfarin.
The nurse should identify which of the following findings as a contraindication for the administration of this medication?

A. Recent myocardial infarction. B. Recent eye surgery. C. Thrombophlebitis. D. Breast cancer.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Recent myocardial infarction is not a contraindication for warfarin administration. Warfarin is often prescribed for patients with a history of myocardial infarction to prevent clot formation and reduce the risk of stroke.

Choice B:

Recent eye surgery is a contraindication for the administration of warfarin. Warfarin can increase the risk of bleeding, which is particularly concerning after eye surgery due to the delicate nature of ocular tissues. Using anticoagulants in this scenario can lead to severe complications, including vision loss.

Choice C:

Thrombophlebitis, inflammation of a vein with clot formation, is not a contraindication for warfarin administration. In fact, anticoagulants like warfarin are commonly prescribed to prevent the extension of clots and reduce the risk of complications associated with thrombophlebitis.

Choice D:

Breast cancer is not a direct contraindication for warfarin administration. However, the decision to use anticoagulants in patients with a history of breast cancer should be made carefully, considering individual factors such as the stage of cancer, ongoing treatment, and overall risk of thromboembolic events.

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 16:

A nurse is caring for a client who is in active labor.
The nurse should notify the provider for which of the following findings?

A. Moderate variability in the FHR. B. Prolonged decelerations. C. Three uterine contractions within 10 min. D. Baseline FHR 115/min.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Moderate variability in the FHR is a reassuring sign of fetal well-being, indicating a responsive fetal autonomic nervous system to normal physiologic stimuli. It is considered a normal finding in active labor, suggesting that the fetus is well-oxygenated and able to cope with contractions.

Choice B:

Prolonged decelerations are concerning patterns on the fetal heart rate (FHR) monitor, indicating potential fetal distress. Prolonged decelerations are defined as lasting more than 2 minutes but less than 10 minutes. These decelerations can be caused by umbilical cord compression, placental insufficiency, or maternal hypotension. Prompt intervention is required, making this choice the correct answer.

Choice C:

Three uterine contractions within 10 minutes, also known as a contraction stress test (CST), is a normal finding. It assesses the fetal response to stress and is used to evaluate the placental function and fetal well-being.

Choice D:

A baseline FHR of 115/min is within the normal range (110-160 beats per minute) for a term fetus. It indicates a stable fetal heart rate, and there is no immediate need for intervention.

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 17:

A home health nurse is planning care for a client who has Alzheimer's disease.
Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

A. Wear clothing with zippers instead of buttons. B. Place locks at the tops of exterior doors. C. Replace the carpet with hardwood floors. D. Encourage physical activity prior to bedtime.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Wearing clothing with zippers instead of buttons does not address the safety concerns related to Alzheimer's disease. This choice does not ensure the client's safety or prevent wandering, which are common issues in Alzheimer's patients.

Choice B:

Placing locks at the tops of exterior doors is essential for the safety of clients with Alzheimer's disease. Alzheimer's patients often have a tendency to wander and may become disoriented, putting them at risk of getting lost or injured outside the home. Proper locks can prevent them from leaving the house unsupervised.

Choice C:

Replacing the carpet with hardwood floors may reduce the risk of falls but does not specifically address the safety concerns related to Alzheimer's disease. It is important to focus on measures that prevent wandering and ensure the client's safety in various situations.

Choice D:

Encouraging physical activity prior to bedtime is a good practice for promoting sleep in older adults but does not directly address the safety concerns of Alzheimer's patients. Safety measures, such as securing doors, supervising the client, and preventing wandering, are more crucial in this context.

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 18:

A charge nurse on a medical-surgical unit is assisting with the emergency response plan following an external disaster in the community.
In anticipation of multiple client admissions, which of the following current clients should the nurse recommend for early discharge?

A. A client who is receiving heparin for deep-vein thrombosis. B. A client who is 1 day postoperative following a vertebroplasty. C. A client who has cancer and a sealed implant for radiation therapy. D. A client who has COPD and a respiratory rate of 44/min.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

A client receiving heparin for deep-vein thrombosis may require ongoing monitoring and treatment, and early discharge might not be appropriate.

Choice B:

Clients who are one day postoperative after a vertebroplasty are typically recovering from a relatively minor procedure and may be stable for discharge if their condition remains uncomplicated.

Choice C:

A client with cancer and a sealed implant for radiation therapy likely has specific treatment needs and should not be discharged early.

Choice D:

A client with COPD and a respiratory rate of 44/min likely has respiratory distress and should not be discharged early. Their condition requires close monitoring and intervention.

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 19:

A nurse is caring for a client who has a placenta previa.
Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

A. Spotting. B. Nausea. C. Board-like abdomen. D. Delayed menses.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Spotting is a common finding in placenta previa. It occurs due to the abnormal implantation of the placenta over or near the cervical os, leading to vaginal bleeding. This bleeding can range from mild spotting to severe hemorrhage and is a significant sign of placenta previa.

Choice B:

Nausea is not a specific sign of placenta previa. Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms during early pregnancy but are not directly related to placenta previa.

Choice C:

A board-like abdomen is a sign of peritonitis or an acute abdomen, which is not associated with placenta previa. This finding suggests intra-abdominal inflammation and is unrelated to the condition in question.

Choice D:

Delayed menses is a common sign of pregnancy, but it does not specifically indicate placenta previa. Placenta previa is characterized by vaginal bleeding, which is not synonymous with a delay in menstrual periods.

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 20:

A nurse enters a client's room and sees a small fire in the client's bathroom.

Identify the sequence of steps the nurse should take.

(Move the steps, placing them in the order of performance. Use all the steps.)

A. Use the unit's fire extinguisher to attempt to put out the fire. B. Close all nearby windows and doors. C. Activate the facility's fire alarm system. D. Transport the client to another area of the nursing unit.

Answer and Explanation

Explanation

In the event of a fire, the nurse should prioritize safety and follow the facility’s emergency protocols, which typically align with the “RACE” acronym: Rescue: d. Transport the client to another area of the nursing unit. Ensure the client is safe from immediate danger. Alarm: c. Activate the facility’s fire alarm system. Alert others in the facility by activating the fire alarm. Confine: b. Close all nearby windows and doors. Prevent the spread of fire by closing doors and windows. Extinguish: a. Use the unit’s fire extinguisher to attempt to put out the fire. If it’s safe to do so, attempt to extinguish the fire using a fire extinguisher. Remember, the safety of the client and the nurse is the top priority. If the fire is too large or the situation too dangerous, the nurse should evacuate and wait for the fire department to handle the situation. Always follow the specific procedures of your healthcare facility.

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Sign Up or Login to view all the 188 Questions on this Exam

Join over 100,000+ nursing students using Naxlex’s science-backend flashcards, practice tests and expert solutions to improve their grades and reach their goals.

Exam Review

ATI RN Comprehensive predictor 2023 Retake 1 Share this Share This Link Share on social media Facebook Messager WhatsApp Share URL Copy Close

Total Questions : 188

Sign Up or Login to view all the 188 Questions on this Exam

ATI RN Comprehensive predictor 2023 Retake 1

Share This Link

Share on social media

Facebook

Messager

WhatsApp

Share URL
Copy