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Ati pn comprehensive predictor 2023

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Total Questions : 178

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Question 1:

Parents of an adolescent client experiencing a relapse of leukemia do not want the client to know about the relapse. Which of the following ethical principles must a nurse consider when the client asks about their medical status?

Answer and Explanation

A
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Question 2:

A nurse is discussing informed consent with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the information?

Answer and Explanation

A
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Question 3:

1200:

A 36-year-old client presents for an initial prenatal visit with reports of frequent nausea and vomiting. The client reports their last menstrual period was approximately 4 months ago. Client is also experiencing occasional episodes of watery dark brown vaginal discharge.

1230:

Fundal height 28 cm and absence of fetal heart tones noted by provider. Client transferred to antepartum unit for further evaluation.

1200:

Temperature 36.8° C (98.2° F)

Heart rate 86/min

Respiratory rate 20/min

Blood pressure 145/95 mm Hg

Oxygen saturation 95% on room air

1300:

Hgb 9 g/dL (greater than 11 g/dL)

Hct 27% (greater than 33%)

Blood type AB

Rh factor positive

1400:

Ultrasound reveals an in 11 g/dL) noted, absence of fetus3%)

A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who is pregnant.

Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices below to specify what condition the client is meet likely experiencing, 2 actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and 2 parameters the nurse should monitor to determine the client's progress.

Answer and Explanation

Explanation

  • Prepare the client for an emergency cesarean birth: Emergency cesarean delivery is indicated in cases of fetal distress or placenta previa with severe bleeding at term. In a hydatidiform mole, there is no viable fetus, and the priority is evacuation of the molar tissue rather than delivery by cesarean section.
  • Prepare the client for suction curettage: Suction curettage is the treatment of choice for a hydatidiform mole. It allows for the complete evacuation of abnormal trophoblastic tissue, preventing complications such as severe hemorrhage and progression to malignant gestational trophoblastic disease.
  • Anticipate a prescription for methotrexate: Methotrexate is primarily used to treat ectopic pregnancies or persistent gestational trophoblastic disease after a molar pregnancy, not for initial management. Immediate evacuation of the mole by suction curettage is the first-line intervention for this client.
  • Remind the client that weekly blood tests are needed to measure pregnancy hormone: Following a molar pregnancy, weekly beta-hCG tests are critical to monitor for residual trophoblastic tissue or the development of choriocarcinoma. A declining beta-hCG confirms the resolution of disease, while a plateau or rise indicates persistent disease.
  • Administer terbutaline: Terbutaline is a tocolytic medication used to relax the uterus in cases of preterm labor. In the case of a hydatidiform mole, uterine evacuation is necessary rather than uterine relaxation, making terbutaline inappropriate for this situation.
  • Vaginal bleeding: Clients with a hydatidiform mole are at risk for significant vaginal bleeding due to the abnormal growth of trophoblastic tissue. Monitoring the amount and type of vaginal bleeding helps detect hemorrhage or retained molar tissue requiring urgent intervention.
  • Blood pressure: Elevated blood pressure is a potential complication of hydatidiform mole, similar to preeclampsia, and can occur even in the first or second trimester. Regular monitoring of blood pressure is essential to detect worsening hypertensive symptoms early.
  • Uterus for hypertonicity: Hypertonicity of the uterus is typically monitored in cases of labor or uterine rupture concerns. In a hydatidiform mole, the uterus is distended by abnormal tissue but hypertonicity is not a primary concern needing monitoring in this condition.
  • Unilateral pelvic pain: Unilateral pelvic pain is more characteristic of ectopic pregnancy rather than a molar pregnancy. In hydatidiform mole, generalized uterine enlargement and discomfort are more typical, so unilateral pelvic pain is not a focus for this client.
  • Cervical dilation per provider: Cervical dilation is not the main indicator of progress or concern with a molar pregnancy. The focus is on removing molar tissue and monitoring beta-hCG levels, not on the progress of cervical changes like in labor.

A
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Question 4:

2 months ago:

Client states, "My depression has been getting a little worse lately."

Client reports increased fatigue, sadness, and hypersomnia over the last few months. Client reports their manifestations have been well-controlled "for years" on fluoxetine, but "it seems to have stopped working." Client denies any physical complications or suicidal ideation.

Client has history of depression and hyperlipidemia.

Client lives at home with partner and 4-year-old child. Denies alcohol, illicit drug, or tobacco use. Exercises occasionally.

Today:

Client states, "I'm feeling much better." They report less fatigue, even though they have difficulty sleeping. Client reports they are not sad anymore but are experiencing more frequent headaches. Client continues to deny any suicidal ideation.

2 months ago:

Stop fluoxetine.

Wait 2 weeks, then start phenelzine.

Reinforce education with client on risks, benefits, and adverse effects of medication. Advise client to report any worsening depression symptoms or suicidal ideation immediately.

2 months ago:

Blood pressure 128/78 mm Hg

Heart rate 76/min

Respiratory rate 17/min

Today:

Blood pressure 169/91 mm Hg

Heart rate 78/min

Respiratory rate 18/min

A nurse is assisting in the care of a client in an outpatient mental health clinic.

Click to highlight the findings that indicate the client is experiencing adverse effects of the medication. To deselect a finding, click on the finding again.

Nurses' Notes

Today:

Client states, "I'm feeling much better." They report less fatigue, even though they have difficulty sleeping. Client reports they are not sad anymore but are experiencing more frequent headaches. Client continues to deny any suicidal ideation.

Vital Signs

Today:

Blood pressure 169/91 mm Hg

Heart rate 78/min

Respiratory rate 18/min

Answer and Explanation

Explanation

  • Frequent headaches: Phenelzine, an MAOI, can cause hypertensive crisis, with one of the earliest signs being persistent or worsening headaches. Frequent headaches must be treated as a possible warning of dangerously elevated blood pressure and require immediate provider notification.
  • Elevated blood pressure (169/91 mm Hg): The significant rise in the client's blood pressure compared to baseline indicates new-onset hypertension. This is a serious adverse effect associated with MAOIs and signals the potential development of a hypertensive crisis, which must be urgently addressed.
  • Difficulty sleeping: Difficulty sleeping or insomnia is a common side effect of phenelzine and other antidepressants. Although not life-threatening, insomnia can impair recovery if untreated and should be documented and discussed with the provider to adjust management if needed.
  • Feeling much better: Improvement in mood and reduced fatigue are intended therapeutic outcomes of phenelzine treatment. These findings are positive signs and do not indicate an adverse reaction that needs intervention.
  • Heart rate 78/min and respiratory rate 18/min: Both values are within normal ranges and do not suggest immediate concerns related to cardiovascular or respiratory function. They should continue to be monitored but do not require urgent action.

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Question 5:

A nurse is assisting with a quality improvement project to decrease client falls. Which of the following activities should the nurse perform?

Answer and Explanation

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Question 6:

A nurse in a long-term care facility is assisting in planning care for a group of clients. For which of the following clients can the nurse safely gait belt?

Answer and Explanation

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Question 7:

0800:

Parent states child was awake frequently throughout the night due to pain. Child now sleeping but awakens easily. Heart rate regular without murmur. Respirations unlabored, shallow. Lung sounds clear throughout. Abdomen soft, nondistended. Bowel sounds hypoactive. Right lower quadrant abdominal dressing dry and intact.

1200:

Child rates pain as 6 on the FACES pain rating scale. Alert and irritable, cooperates with coaxing/playing. Heart rate regular without murmur. Respirations unlabored, shallow. Lung sounds clear throughout. Abdomen soft, tender upon palpation around incision site. Bowel sounds hypoactive. Right lower quadrant abdominal dressing dry and intact. Child refuses to use incentive spirometer despite encouragement

1245:

Child rates pain as a 4 on FACES pain rating scale following administration of analgesic.

1600:

Child rates pain as 8 on the FACES pain rating scale. Heart rate regular without murmur. Respirations unlabored, shallow. Lung sounds slightly diminished in the bilateral lower lobes. Abdomen soft, tender upon palpation around incision site. Bowel sounds remain hypoactive. Right lower quadrant abdominal dressing dry and intact, scant amount of serosanguinous drainage noted.

0800:

Temperature 37° C (98.6° F)

Heart rate 122/min Respiratory rate 20/min

BP 96/48 mm Hg

1200:

Temperature 37.2° C (99° F)

Heart rate 126/min

Respiratory rate 22/min

BP 98/52 mm Hg

1600:

Temperature 37.7° C (99.9° F)

Heart rate 124/min

Respiratory rate 24/min

BP 100/54 mm Hg

A nurse is assisting with the care of a preschooler who is postoperative following an appendectomy.

Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options.

The pre-schooler is at risk for developing

evidenced by the pre-schooler's

Answer and Explanation

Explanation

  • Pneumonia: The preschooler is showing signs of shallow breathing, refusal to use the incentive spirometer, and slightly diminished breath sounds in the bilateral lower lobes, all of which increase the risk of developing pneumonia. Postoperative patients, especially young children, are vulnerable to pneumonia due to pain-limited deep breathing and poor pulmonary expansion.
  • Wound infection: Although there is some serosanguinous drainage at the incision site, the dressing remains dry overall, and there is no mention of redness, warmth, or purulent discharge typically associated with wound infection. Therefore, wound infection is not the primary concern at this point.
  • Ileus: Hypoactive bowel sounds are present, but they have been stable throughout the day without worsening abdominal distension or absence of bowel function. While ileus is a postoperative risk, the more pressing concern given the respiratory findings is pneumonia.
  • Shallow breathing: The child consistently shows shallow, unlabored respirations throughout assessments, which indicate limited lung expansion. Without effective use of the incentive spirometer and adequate deep breathing, shallow breathing places the child at high risk for pulmonary complications such as pneumonia.
  • Increasing temperature: Although the child's temperature rose slightly by 1600, it remains below 38° C (100.4° F), which is not typically classified as a fever. The minor temperature elevation could be related to inflammation rather than an infectious process at this stage.
  • Hypoactive bowel sounds: Hypoactive bowel sounds are expected in the early postoperative period, particularly following abdominal surgery due to the effects of anesthesia and manipulation of the bowel during surgery. While they should be monitored, they are not the primary finding indicating the most urgent complication in this situation.

A
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Question 8:

0800:

Client transported to emergency department by emergency medical services. Client found in a bathroom at a bar unresponsive and without a pulse. Report by emergency medical services states that a needle was in the client's left antecubital space. Naloxone was administered at the scene. EMS relayed that someone saw the client have one beer and then go to the bathroom.

Client drowsy, arouses to noxious stimuli, but falls back asleep quickly.

Eyes: Pupils reactive, miotic

Heart: Normal rate and rhythm

Lungs: Equal bilateral, clear to auscultation

Abdomen: Decreased bowel sounds

Skin: Marks in left antecubital space

Review of medical record 2 weeks prior. Discharge note:

At 0600, Client transported to the emergency department by emergency medical services. Client was found in the park by runners. Client presented with manifestations of sedation, miosis, hypokinesis, and mood alteration. Supportive care provided. At 1000, client stated, "I am going to throw up. I've never used this drug before." Assessment revealed mydriasis, hyperreflexia, diaphoresis, piloerection. Supportive care provided. Medications included buprenorphine/naloxone taper x 4 days. Client stabilized and discharged back to shelter after completing the 4-day buprenorphine/naloxone taper.

0800:

Temperature 37.2° C (99° F)

Heart rate 60/min

Respiratory rate 10/min

Blood pressure 98/64 mm Hg

2 weeks ago

0500:

Temperature 36.7°C (98.2° F)

Heart rate 62/min

Respiratory rate 14/min

Blood pressure 110/66 mm Hg

1000:

Temperature 37.4° C (99.4°F) Heart rate 110/min

Respiratory rate 18/min

Blood pressure 148/86 mm Hg

A nurse is assisting with the care of a client.

Select 1 condition and 1 finding to fill in each blank in the following  sentence.

The client likely suffered from 

as evidenced by   

Answer and Explanation

Explanation

  • alcohol intoxication: Although the client consumed one beer, this small amount is unlikely to cause unresponsiveness, respiratory depression, or the need for naloxone administration. Alcohol intoxication alone does not explain the profound sedation and pinpoint pupils observed.
  • alcohol withdrawal: Alcohol withdrawal typically presents with signs like agitation, tremors, hallucinations, and seizures, not sedation, miosis, and depressed respiratory drive. The client’s symptoms are inconsistent with alcohol withdrawal.
  • hallucinogen intoxication: Hallucinogen use usually leads to agitation, paranoia, hallucinations, and dilated pupils (mydriasis), not the sedated state, respiratory depression, and miotic pupils that this client is exhibiting.
  • opioid intoxication: The client's unresponsiveness, respiratory depression, and pinpoint pupils, combined with a positive response to naloxone, are classic indicators of opioid intoxication. These findings directly align with the expected effects of opioid overdose.
  • opioid withdrawal: Opioid withdrawal presents with signs like agitation, mydriasis, diarrhea, piloerection, and flu-like symptoms. The client’s current state of sedation and miotic pupils contradicts what would be seen during opioid withdrawal.
  • amount of alcohol consumed: The small amount of alcohol (one beer) does not correlate with the severity of the client’s clinical presentation. Thus, alcohol consumption is not the primary factor contributing to the current state.
  • breath sounds: Breath sounds are clear and equal bilaterally, indicating that the lungs are not the source of the client's critical condition. There is no evidence of respiratory infection or pulmonary complications.
  • abdominal findings: Decreased bowel sounds are common in opioid intoxication due to decreased gastrointestinal motility. However, while supportive, this finding is less definitive than the hallmark sign of pupil constriction.
  • pupil characteristics: The presence of pinpoint pupils (miosis) is a hallmark sign of opioid intoxication. Miotic pupils, especially in an unresponsive client who improved after naloxone, strongly support opioid overdose as the primary diagnosis.
  • current temperature: The client's temperature is within normal limits, providing no significant diagnostic clue toward explaining the cause of unresponsiveness or respiratory depression.

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Question 9:

A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty and is receiving heparin subcutaneously. Which of the following adverse effects of the medication should the nurse report to the provider?

Answer and Explanation

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Question 10:

0500:

Client admitted from emergency department with heart failure. Crackles auscultated bilaterally throughout lung fields. Lower extremities cool and dry with 1+ pedal pulses and 3+ plus pitting edema bilaterally.

Capillary refill 2 seconds.

0800:

Client incontinent of urine.

0500:

Temperature 36.6° C (97.9° F)

Heart rate 100/min

Respiratory rate 22/min

Blood pressure 160/98 mm Hg

Oxygen saturation 96% on oxygen 2 L/min via nasal cannula

1400:

Temperature 36.8° C (98.3° F)

Heart rate 90/min

Respiratory rate 18/min

Blood pressure 138/88 mm Hg

Oxygen saturation 97% on oxygen 2 L/min via nasal cannula

0500:

Administer oxygen 2 L/min via nasal cannula

Monitor intake and output.

Fluid restriction of 1,000 mL daily

1000:

Insert indwelling urinary catheter.

0600:

Calcium 9.3 mg/dL (9.0 to 10.5 mg/dL)

Chloride 105 mEq/L (98 to 106 mEq/L)

Magnesium 1.5 mEq/L (1.3 to 2.1 mEq/L)

Phosphate 4.1 mg/dL (3 to 4.5 mg/dL)

Potassium 4.5 mEq/L (3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L)

Sodium 149 mEq/L (136 to 145 mEq/L)

1900:

750 mL intake over 12 hr

650 mL urine output over 12 hr

A nurse is assisting with the care of a client in a medical-surgical unit.

Which of the following actions should the nurse take to decrease the risks for a urinary tract infection for this client? Select all that apply.

Answer and Explanation

A
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Question 11:

A nurse is assisting in the discharge planning of an infant who has a spica cast. Which of the following equipment needs should the nurse identify for discharge?

Answer and Explanation

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Question 12:

A nurse in a provider's office is collecting data from a client who has psoriasis. Which of the following statements by the client should the nurse report to the provider?

Answer and Explanation

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Question 13:

A nurse is contributing to the plan of care for a client who has a chest tube set to continuous suction to relieve a pneumothorax. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

Answer and Explanation

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Question 14:

A nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client regarding long-acting reversible contraception options. Which of the following client statements indicate an understanding of the teaching?

Answer and Explanation

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Question 15:

A nurse is caring for a client who has continuous bladder irrigation following a transurethral resection of the prostate. The nurse notes clots and dark red blood in the catheter collection bag. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Answer and Explanation

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Question 16:

A nurse is assisting in planning care for a 16-year-old client in a pediatric clinic. Which of the following actions would be a breach of confidentiality?

Answer and Explanation

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Question 17:

A nurse is assisting with the care of client who is 6 hr postoperative. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Answer and Explanation

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Question 18:

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client about the use of budesonide for asthma management. Which of the following statements by the adolescent indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Answer and Explanation

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Question 19:

A nurse is caring for a client who is at 34 weeks of gestation. Which of the following statements by the client is the nurse's priority to report to the provider?

Answer and Explanation

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Question 20:

A nurse is caring for a client who is confused and is trying to pull out their IV catheter. After attempting other measures to prevent the client from self-harm, the nurse places wrist restraints on the client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Answer and Explanation

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