The patient weighing 147 pounds with septic shock has a BP of 70/46 mm Hg, pulse 136, respirations 30, temperature 104° F, and blood glucose 391 mg/dL. Which intervention red by the health care provider should the nurse implement first?
Give a 2000mL normal saline bolus
Start insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 110 to 150 mg/dL.
Give acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg rectally.
Give prescribed Antibiotics
Start norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep systolic blood pressure >90 mm Hg.
The Correct Answer is D
In septic shock, prompt administration of antibiotics is crucial in order to target the underlying infection and prevent further progression of the septic process. Antibiotics help to eradicate the causative organisms and reduce the bacterial load, which can help improve patient outcomes.
While all the options mentioned are important interventions in the management of septic shock, initiating antibiotic therapy is considered a priority in order to address the underlying infection and prevent sepsis-related complications.
A. Giving a 2000 mL normal saline bolus in (option A) is incorrect because: Fluid resuscitation is important in septic shock to restore intravascular volume, but antibiotic therapy takes precedence as it directly targets the underlying infection.
B. Starting an insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 110 to 150 mg/dL in (option B) is incorrect because Glycemic control is important in septic shock, but it is not the first priority compared to addressing the infection.
C. Giving acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg rectally in (option C) is incorrect because Antipyretic medications can help reduce fever, but they do not address the underlying infection or stabilize the patient's condition.
E. Starting norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep systolic blood pressure >90 mm Hg in (option E) is incorrect because: Vasopressor support may be necessary in septic shock to maintain adequate blood pressure, but initiating antibiotics takes priority in order to address the underlying infection.
Therefore, in a patient with septic shock presenting with the given signs and symptoms, the nurse should first implement the intervention of giving the prescribed antibiotics to target the underlying infection.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Central venous pressure (CVP) is a measurement of the pressure in the central veins, which reflects the blood volume and right-sided cardiac function. High CVP readings may indicate fluid overload or impaired cardiac function, and intervention is necessary to address the underlying cause.
Administering IV diuretic medications can help reduce fluid volume by increasing urine output and promoting fluid elimination. By removing excess fluid, the diuretic medications can help lower the CVP and alleviate the high pressures.
The other options mentioned are not the anticipated actions for addressing high CVP:
A. Increasing the IV fluid infusion rate in (option A) is incorrect because: If the CVP is already indicating high pressures, increasing the IV fluid infusion rate would further contribute to fluid overload and exacerbate the problem. This action would not be appropriate for high CVP readings.
C. Elevating the head of the patient's bed to 45 degrees in (option C) is incorrect because Positioning the patient with the head of the bed elevated is commonly done to prevent complications such as aspiration or improve respiratory function. While it may have other benefits, it does not directly address the high CVP.
D. Documenting the CVP and continuing to monitor in (option D) is incorrect because Documenting the CVP and continuing to monitor is important for ongoing assessment and evaluation. However, in the presence of high CVP readings, intervention is necessary to address the underlying issue rather than solely documenting and monitoring.
Therefore, when a patient's CVP monitor indicates high pressures following surgery, the nurse would anticipate administering IV diuretic medications to help reduce fluid volume and lower the CVP.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This pathway represents the normal sequence of electrical impulses that coordinate the contraction and relaxation of the heart chambers.
The electrical signal originates from the sinoatrial (SA) node, which is often referred to as the natural pacemaker of the heart. It is located in the right atrium and generates the electrical impulses that initiate each heartbeat. From the SA node, the electrical signal travels to the atrioventricular (AV) node, which is located at the junction between the atria and ventricles.
After passing through the AV node, the electrical impulse travels through the bundle of His (also known as the atrioventricular bundle) and divides into the right and left bundle branches. These branches continue the conduction pathway and deliver the electrical signal to the Purkinje fibers.
The Purkinje fibers spread the electrical impulse rapidly throughout the ventricles, stimulating the contraction of the ventricular muscle and allowing for efficient pumping of blood out of the heart.
Therefore, the correct sequence of the normal conduction pathway in the heart is:
A. SA node - AV node - bundle of His - bundle branches - Purkinje fibers.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today