The patient weighing 147 pounds with septic shock has a BP of 70/46 mm Hg, pulse 136, respirations 30, temperature 104° F, and blood glucose 391 mg/dL. Which intervention red by the health care provider should the nurse implement first?

Give a 2000mL normal saline bolus

Start insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 110 to 150 mg/dL.

Give acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg rectally.

Give prescribed Antibiotics

Start norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep systolic blood pressure >90 mm Hg.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

In septic shock, prompt administration of antibiotics is crucial in order to target the underlying infection and prevent further progression of the septic process. Antibiotics help to eradicate the causative organisms and reduce the bacterial load, which can help improve patient outcomes.
While all the options mentioned are important interventions in the management of septic shock, initiating antibiotic therapy is considered a priority in order to address the underlying infection and prevent sepsis-related complications.
A. Giving a 2000 mL normal saline bolus in (option A) is incorrect because: Fluid resuscitation is important in septic shock to restore intravascular volume, but antibiotic therapy takes precedence as it directly targets the underlying infection.
B. Starting an insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 110 to 150 mg/dL in (option B) is incorrect because Glycemic control is important in septic shock, but it is not the first priority compared to addressing the infection.
C. Giving acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg rectally in (option C) is incorrect because Antipyretic medications can help reduce fever, but they do not address the underlying infection or stabilize the patient's condition.
E. Starting norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep systolic blood pressure >90 mm Hg in (option E) is incorrect because: Vasopressor support may be necessary in septic shock to maintain adequate blood pressure, but initiating antibiotics takes priority in order to address the underlying infection.
Therefore, in a patient with septic shock presenting with the given signs and symptoms, the nurse should first implement the intervention of giving the prescribed antibiotics to target the underlying infection.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Urine output is an essential indicator of renal perfusion and overall fluid status. In a patient in shock, maintaining an adequate urine output is a crucial goal of fluid resuscitation. A urine output of 0.5 to 1 mL/kg/hour is generally considered adequate in adults. The given value of 35 ml over the last hour suggests that the patient is producing urine, which indicates that fluid resuscitation is effective in restoring perfusion to the kidneys.
A. The patient's mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 50 mm Hg in (option A) is incorrect because While mean arterial pressure is an important hemodynamic parameter, a single value alone may not provide a comprehensive assessment of the patient's response to fluid resuscitation.
B. The patient's GCS score is 9 in (option B) is incorrect because The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) assesses the level of consciousness and neurological function but does not directly reflect fluid resuscitation effectiveness.
D. The patient's hemoglobin is within normal limits: (option D) is incorrect because Haemoglobin levels are important for assessing oxygen-carrying capacity but do not directly indicate the effectiveness of fluid resuscitation.
Therefore, the nurse can evaluate that fluid resuscitation for a 70 kg patient in shock is effective by observing a urine output of 35 ml over the last hour.

A. Draw an arterial blood gas (ABG). B. Start insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 150 mg/dl or lower. C. Give a normal saline bolus IV of 30mL/kg. D. Titrate norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep MAP greater than 65 mm Hg.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Septic shock is characterized by inadequate tissue perfusion and hypotension, which can lead to organ dysfunction and failure. The administration of intravenous fluids, such as a normal saline bolus, is the initial priority in the management of septic shock to restore intravascular volume and improve perfusion.
A. Draw an arterial blood gas (ABG) in (option A) is incorrect because: ABG may be ordered to assess the patient's acid-base status and oxygenation, but addressing hypotension and restoring perfusion through fluid administration takes priority.
B. Start insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 150 mg/dl or lower in (option B) is incorrect because: Hyperglycaemia is commonly observed in critically ill patients, including those with septic shock. While controlling blood glucose is important, it is not the immediate priority compared to addressing hypotension and restoring intravascular volume.
D. Titrate norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep mean arterial pressure (MAP) greater than 65 mm Hg in (option D) is incorrect because: Norepinephrine is a vasopressor medication used to increase blood pressure and perfusion in septic shock. While it may be necessary for the management of septic shock, fluid resuscitation should be initiated first to optimize intravascular volume before starting vasopressors.
Therefore, the first order that the nurse should accomplish in this scenario is to give a normal saline bolus IV of 30 mL/kg to address the hypotension and restore intravascular volume.

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The patient weighing 147 pounds with septic shock has a BP of 70/46 mm Hg, pulse 136, respirations 30, temperature 104° F, and blood glucose 391 mg/dL. Which intervention red by the health care provider should the nurse implement first?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The emergency department nurse evaluates that fluid resuscitation for a 70 kg patient in shock is effective by finding which one of the following?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A 48-year-old female patient with septic shock presents with a BP of 70/46, pulse 136, respirations 32, temperature 104.0° F, and blood glucose of 246 mg/dl. The following have been ordered. Which order will the nurse accomplish first?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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