A 29-year-old female patient is admitted to the emergency department with two of the systemic inflammatory response syndrome variables: temperature of 101.2 °F and 14,000 per μL white blood cell count. Which intervention from the sepsis resuscitation bundle does the nurse initiate?

Cooling baths

Broad-spectrum antibiotics

Blood transfusion

NPO status

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

The patient's symptoms of fever and elevated white blood cell count suggest a potential infection and sepsis. Broad-spectrum antibiotics should be initiated promptly to cover a wide range of possible pathogens until further diagnostic tests and identification of the specific causative agent are obtained. Early administration of appropriate antibiotics is crucial in sepsis management to target the suspected infection and improve patient outcomes.
A. Cooling baths in (option A) is incorrect because: Cooling baths are typically used in the management of hyperthermia or specific conditions like heatstroke. While the patient has an elevated temperature, it is likely due to the systemic inflammatory response rather than solely hyperthermia.
C. Blood transfusion in (option C) is incorrect because Blood transfusion may be required in certain cases of sepsis if there is evidence of significant anemia or active bleeding. However, based on the information provided, there is no immediate indication of a blood transfusion.
D. NPO status in (option D) is incorrect because NPO status (nothing by mouth) is a general precautionary measure used in various situations, such as prior to surgery or to manage gastrointestinal complications. It is not a specific intervention in the sepsis resuscitation bundle.
Therefore, the nurse should initiate the intervention of administering broad-spectrum antibiotics in this scenario.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is a measure of the average pressure within the arteries during one cardiac cycle. It represents the perfusion pressure that drives blood flow to organs and tissues. MAP is calculated using the formula:
MAP = Diastolic blood pressure + 1/3 (Systolic blood pressure - Diastolic blood pressure)
Blood loss, particularly in cases of significant hemorrhage, leads to a decrease in blood volume. When blood volume decreases, there is less circulating blood available to generate pressure within the arterial system. This reduction in blood volume results in decreased MAP.
Therefore, in the case of massive blood loss after trauma, the student can correlate it with a lower blood volume, which in turn leads to a lower MAP. The decrease in blood volume reduces the perfusion pressure, compromising organ and tissue perfusion
A. It causes vasoconstriction and increased MAP in (option A) is incorrect because: While vasoconstriction can occur as a compensatory mechanism to maintain blood pressure, it does not necessarily lead to an increased MAP in the context of significant blood loss.
C. It raises cardiac output and MAP in (option C) is incorrect because Blood loss typically leads to a reduction in cardiac output due to decreased blood volume. Therefore, it does not raise cardiac output and MAP.
D. There is no direct correlation to MAP in (option D) is incorrect because: There is indeed a direct correlation between blood loss and MAP. As blood volume decreases, MAP decreases as well.
Therefore, the correct correlation between blood loss and MAP is that lower blood volume lowers MAP.

A. ventricular tachycardia. B. atrial fibrillation. C. atrial tachycardia. D. ventricular fibrillation.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The characteristics described in the monitor strip analysis suggest ventricular tachycardia. The absence of a visible P wave and the wide and distorted QRS complex indicates that the electrical impulse is originating in the ventricles rather than the atria. The ventricular rate of 196 and regular R-R intervals further support the diagnosis of ventricular tachycardia.
B. Atrial fibrillation in (option B) is incorrect because it is characterized by irregularly irregular R-R intervals and the absence of discernible P waves. The QRS complex is typically narrow
C. Atrial tachycardia in (option C) is incorrect because it would have a rapid atrial rate with regular R-R intervals, and P waves may or may not be discernible. The QRS complex is typically narrow.
D. Ventricular fibrillation in (option D) is incorrect because it would present as a chaotic, rapid, and irregular electrical activity with no discernible P waves, QRS complexes, or regular R-R intervals. It is a life-threatening emergency that requires immediate defibrillation.
Therefore, based on the provided information, the nurse would interpret the patient's cardiac rhythm as ventricular tachycardia. However, it is important to note that an accurate interpretation should be made by a qualified healthcare professional, and the patient's clinical context should also be considered.

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A 29-year-old female patient is admitted to the emergency department with two of the systemic inflammatory response syndrome variables: temperature of 101.2 °F and 14,000 per μL white blood cell count. Which intervention from the sepsis resuscitation bundle does the nurse initiate?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A student is caring for a patient who suffered massive blood loss after trauma. How does the student correlate the blood loss with the patient's mean arterial pressure (MAP)?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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