A 29-year-old female patient is admitted to the emergency department with two of the systemic inflammatory response syndrome variables: temperature of 101.2 °F and 14,000 per μL white blood cell count. Which intervention from the sepsis resuscitation bundle does the nurse initiate?
Cooling baths
Broad-spectrum antibiotics
Blood transfusion
NPO status
The Correct Answer is B
The patient's symptoms of fever and elevated white blood cell count suggest a potential infection and sepsis. Broad-spectrum antibiotics should be initiated promptly to cover a wide range of possible pathogens until further diagnostic tests and identification of the specific causative agent are obtained. Early administration of appropriate antibiotics is crucial in sepsis management to target the suspected infection and improve patient outcomes.
A. Cooling baths in (option A) is incorrect because: Cooling baths are typically used in the management of hyperthermia or specific conditions like heatstroke. While the patient has an elevated temperature, it is likely due to the systemic inflammatory response rather than solely hyperthermia.
C. Blood transfusion in (option C) is incorrect because Blood transfusion may be required in certain cases of sepsis if there is evidence of significant anemia or active bleeding. However, based on the information provided, there is no immediate indication of a blood transfusion.
D. NPO status in (option D) is incorrect because NPO status (nothing by mouth) is a general precautionary measure used in various situations, such as prior to surgery or to manage gastrointestinal complications. It is not a specific intervention in the sepsis resuscitation bundle.
Therefore, the nurse should initiate the intervention of administering broad-spectrum antibiotics in this scenario.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
In septic shock, prompt administration of antibiotics is crucial in order to target the underlying infection and prevent further progression of the septic process. Antibiotics help to eradicate the causative organisms and reduce the bacterial load, which can help improve patient outcomes.
While all the options mentioned are important interventions in the management of septic shock, initiating antibiotic therapy is considered a priority in order to address the underlying infection and prevent sepsis-related complications.
A. Giving a 2000 mL normal saline bolus in (option A) is incorrect because: Fluid resuscitation is important in septic shock to restore intravascular volume, but antibiotic therapy takes precedence as it directly targets the underlying infection.
B. Starting an insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 110 to 150 mg/dL in (option B) is incorrect because Glycemic control is important in septic shock, but it is not the first priority compared to addressing the infection.
C. Giving acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg rectally in (option C) is incorrect because Antipyretic medications can help reduce fever, but they do not address the underlying infection or stabilize the patient's condition.
E. Starting norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep systolic blood pressure >90 mm Hg in (option E) is incorrect because: Vasopressor support may be necessary in septic shock to maintain adequate blood pressure, but initiating antibiotics takes priority in order to address the underlying infection.
Therefore, in a patient with septic shock presenting with the given signs and symptoms, the nurse should first implement the intervention of giving the prescribed antibiotics to target the underlying infection.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Septic shock is a life-threatening condition characterized by severe infection, systemic inflammation, and inadequate tissue perfusion. Hypotension, as indicated by a low blood pressure reading, is a significant concern in septic shock. It reflects inadequate perfusion to vital organs and tissues, leading to potential organ dysfunction and damage.
While all the assessment data provided may be important and require attention, the low blood pressure (BP) reading indicates impaired systemic perfusion and can contribute to end-organ damage. The nurse should prioritize interventions aimed at improving perfusion and stabilizing the patient's blood pressure.
A. Arterial oxygen saturation is 90% in (option A) is incorrect because While an arterial oxygen saturation of 90% is below the desired range, it is not as immediately life-threatening as low blood pressure. Oxygen therapy and interventions to improve oxygenation should still be initiated, but addressing hypotension takes priority.
B. Urine output of 15 ml for 2 hours in (option B) is incorrect because Decreased urine output is a concerning sign, as it may indicate impaired renal perfusion. However, the immediate concern in septic shock is addressing the low blood pressure to improve overall perfusion, including renal perfusion.
C. Apical pulse 110 beats/min in (option C) is incorrect because: Tachycardia is a common finding in septic shock and represents the body's compensatory response to maintain cardiac output. While it requires monitoring and consideration, low blood pressure is a more significant concern.
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