Which assessment information obtained by the nurse when caring for a COPD patient receiving mechanical ventilation indicates the need for suctioning?
The pulse oximeter shows a Sp02 of 90%.
The patient has not been suctioned for the last 6 hours.
The respiratory rate is 32 breaths/min.
The lungs have occasional audible expiratory wheezes.
The Correct Answer is C
In a patient receiving mechanical ventilation, a high respiratory rate can indicate increased work of breathing and potential airway obstruction. COPD patients, in particular, may have excessive mucus production and airway inflammation, leading to mucus plugging and compromised airway clearance. Suctioning may be necessary to remove excessive secretions and maintain a patent airway.
A. The pulse oximeter shows a SpO2 of 90% in (option A) is incorrect because While a SpO2 of 90% is suboptimal and may require intervention, it does not specifically indicate the need for suctioning. Other interventions, such as adjusting oxygen delivery or ventilation settings, may be more appropriate.
B. The patient has not been suctioned for the last 6 hours in (option B) is incorrect because The duration since the last suctioning episode alone does not necessarily indicate the need for suctioning. The need for suctioning should be based on the patient's clinical presentation, such as signs of airway obstruction or excessive secretions.
D. The lungs have occasional audible expiratory wheezes in (option D) which is incorrect because Occasional audible expiratory wheezes may be common in patients with COPD and may not specifically indicate the need for suctioning. Wheezing is more commonly associated with narrowing of the airways, and suctioning is typically performed to clear secretions or maintain airway patency.
C. Therefore, in a COPD patient receiving mechanical ventilation, a high respiratory rate (C) is the assessment information that would indicate the need for suctioning to help remove excessive secretions and ensure a patent airway

Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Hypovolemic shock is a life-threatening condition resulting from severe blood or fluid loss. The patient in this scenario exhibits signs of hypovolemic shock, such as low blood pressure, tachycardia, cool and clammy skin, and decreased urine output.
When assessing the prescription options, the nurse should consider the appropriateness of each intervention for hypovolemic shock. Plasmanate is a type of plasma protein fraction that is used for volume expansion in certain situations. However, in hypovolemic shock, the primary intervention is to restore intravascular volume promptly. Plasmanate alone may not be sufficient for rapid-volume resuscitation.
In hypovolemic shock, the initial management typically involves the administration of crystalloid solutions, such as Lactated Ringers or Normal Saline, to restore intravascular volume. Therefore, the prescription of Plasmanate as the primary intervention raises concerns and should be questioned by the nurse.
A. Dopamine (Intropin) 12 mcg/min in (option A) is incorrect because: Dopamine is a vasopressor medication used to increase blood pressure and cardiac output. It is a suitable option for hypovolemic shock to support blood pressure and tissue perfusion.
B. Dobutamine (Dobutrex) 5 mcg/kg/min in (option B) is incorrect because: Dobutamine is an inotropic medication that helps improve cardiac contractility and cardiac output. It can be beneficial in cases of hypovolemic shock with signs of poor cardiac function.
D. Bumetanide (Bumex) 1 mg IV in (option D) is incorrect because: Bumetanide is a loop diuretic used to promote diuresis. However, in the context of hypovolemic shock, diuretics are generally not the first-line treatment as they can further reduce intravascular volume and worsen the patient's condition.
It is essential for the nurse to consult with the healthcare provider regarding the prescription order of Plasmanate and consider alternative interventions for rapid volume resuscitation in hypovolemic shock.

Correct Answer is A
Explanation
In the early stage of septic shock, the body initiates compensatory mechanisms to combat the infection and restore adequate tissue perfusion. Tachypnoea (rapid breathing) and tachycardia (elevated heart rate) are common early signs of septic shock.
Tachypnoea occurs as a response to increased metabolic demand and to compensate for impaired oxygenation and tissue perfusion. Tachycardia is the body's attempt to maintain cardiac output and compensate for decreased blood pressure.
B. Pallor and cool skin in (option B) is incorrect because Pallor and cool skin can occur in later stages of septic shock when perfusion to the peripheral tissues is compromised. However, they are not specific to the early stage.
C. Blood pressure 84/50 mm Hg in (option C) is incorrect because A blood pressure reading of 84/50 mm Hg indicates hypotension, which is typically seen in later stages of septic shock. In the early stage, blood pressure may still be within normal or slightly decreased range.
D. Respiratory acidosis in (optionD) is incorrect because: Respiratory acidosis refers to an imbalance in acid-base status and is not specific to the early stage of septic shock. Acid-base disturbances may occur at any stage of shock but are not indicative of the early stage.

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