A 78-kg patient with septic shock has a urine output of 30 mL/hr for the past 3 hours. The pulse rate is 120/minute and the central venous pressure and pulmonary artery wed pressure are low. Which order by the health care provider will the nurse question?
Administer hydrocortisone (Solu-Cortef) 100 mg IV.
Give PRN furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV.
Increase normal saline infusion to 250 mL/hr.
Titrate norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep systolic BP >90 mm Hg.
The Correct Answer is C
In septic shock, one of the key goals of management is to restore and maintain adequate intravascular volume. However, in this case, the patient's urine output is low (30 mL/hr for the past 3 hours), suggesting inadequate renal perfusion and potential fluid overload.
Administering additional normal saline at an increased rate (250 mL/hr) without addressing the low urine output could potentially exacerbate fluid overload and further compromise the patient's condition.
A. Administer hydrocortisone (Solu-Cortef) 100 mg IV in (option A) is incorrect because: Hydrocortisone is commonly used in septic shock to help stabilize blood pressure and modulate the inflammatory response.
B. Giving PRN furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV in (option B) is incorrect because Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can be administered as needed to address fluid overload or to increase urine output if there is evidence of volume overload.
D. Titrate norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep systolic BP >90 mm Hg in (option D) is incorrect because: Norepinephrine is a vasopressor commonly used in septic shock to increase systemic vascular resistance and maintain adequate blood pressure.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a condition characterized by both widespread activation of the coagulation system and excessive clotting, leading to the consumption of clotting factors and platelets. This results in a prothrombotic state, which can lead to organ dysfunction and bleeding manifestations.
Elevated D-dimer levels are a characteristic finding in DIC. D-dimer is a fibrin degradation product that is elevated when there is excessive fibrin formation and breakdown. Elevated D-dimer indicates ongoing fibrinolysis and activation of the clotting system.
B. Decreased prothrombin time in (option B) is incorrect because: DIC is characterized by consumption of clotting factors, which can result in prolongation of the prothrombin time (PT) as well as other coagulation tests.
C. Decreased partial thromboplastin time in (option C) is incorrect because Similar to the prothrombin time, the partial thromboplastin time (PTT) can also be prolonged in DIC due to the consumption of clotting factors.
D. Elevated fibrinogen level in (option D) is incorrect because, In DIC, there is consumption of fibrinogen along with other clotting factors. Therefore, elevated fibrinogen levels are not consistent with the pathophysiology of DIC.

Correct Answer is D
Explanation
In septic shock, prompt administration of antibiotics is crucial in order to target the underlying infection and prevent further progression of the septic process. Antibiotics help to eradicate the causative organisms and reduce the bacterial load, which can help improve patient outcomes.
While all the options mentioned are important interventions in the management of septic shock, initiating antibiotic therapy is considered a priority in order to address the underlying infection and prevent sepsis-related complications.
A. Giving a 2000 mL normal saline bolus in (option A) is incorrect because: Fluid resuscitation is important in septic shock to restore intravascular volume, but antibiotic therapy takes precedence as it directly targets the underlying infection.
B. Starting an insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 110 to 150 mg/dL in (option B) is incorrect because Glycemic control is important in septic shock, but it is not the first priority compared to addressing the infection.
C. Giving acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg rectally in (option C) is incorrect because Antipyretic medications can help reduce fever, but they do not address the underlying infection or stabilize the patient's condition.
E. Starting norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep systolic blood pressure >90 mm Hg in (option E) is incorrect because: Vasopressor support may be necessary in septic shock to maintain adequate blood pressure, but initiating antibiotics takes priority in order to address the underlying infection.
Therefore, in a patient with septic shock presenting with the given signs and symptoms, the nurse should first implement the intervention of giving the prescribed antibiotics to target the underlying infection.
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