The nurse obtains a monitor strip on a patient who has had a myocardial infarction and makes the following analysis: P wave not apparent, ventricular rate 196, R-R interval regular, P-R interval not measurable, QRS complex wide and distorted, QRS duration 0.18 second. The nurse interprets the patient's cardiac rhythm as;
ventricular tachycardia.
atrial fibrillation.
atrial tachycardia.
ventricular fibrillation.
The Correct Answer is A
The characteristics described in the monitor strip analysis suggest ventricular tachycardia. The absence of a visible P wave and the wide and distorted QRS complex indicates that the electrical impulse is originating in the ventricles rather than the atria. The ventricular rate of 196 and regular R-R intervals further support the diagnosis of ventricular tachycardia.
B. Atrial fibrillation in (option B) is incorrect because it is characterized by irregularly irregular R-R intervals and the absence of discernible P waves. The QRS complex is typically narrow
C. Atrial tachycardia in (option C) is incorrect because it would have a rapid atrial rate with regular R-R intervals, and P waves may or may not be discernible. The QRS complex is typically narrow.
D. Ventricular fibrillation in (option D) is incorrect because it would present as a chaotic, rapid, and irregular electrical activity with no discernible P waves, QRS complexes, or regular R-R intervals. It is a life-threatening emergency that requires immediate defibrillation.
Therefore, based on the provided information, the nurse would interpret the patient's cardiac rhythm as ventricular tachycardia. However, it is important to note that an accurate interpretation should be made by a qualified healthcare professional, and the patient's clinical context should also be considered.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["9000"]
Explanation
4 mL × body weight in kg × percentage of burn = total fluid volume for the first 24 hours Then, divide the total fluid volume by 2 to determine the fluid volume for the first 8 hours.
In this case, the patient weighs 90 kg and has a 50% burn injury.
4 mL × 90 kg × 50% = 18,000 mL (total fluid volume for 24 hours)
18,000 mL / 2 = 9,000 mL (fluid volume for the first 8 hours)
Therefore, the nurse would infuse the intravenous fluid resuscitation at a rate of 9,000 mL over the first 8 hours.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Urine output is an essential indicator of renal perfusion and overall fluid status. In a patient in shock, maintaining an adequate urine output is a crucial goal of fluid resuscitation. A urine output of 0.5 to 1 mL/kg/hour is generally considered adequate in adults. The given value of 35 ml over the last hour suggests that the patient is producing urine, which indicates that fluid resuscitation is effective in restoring perfusion to the kidneys.
A. The patient's mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 50 mm Hg in (option A) is incorrect because While mean arterial pressure is an important hemodynamic parameter, a single value alone may not provide a comprehensive assessment of the patient's response to fluid resuscitation.
B. The patient's GCS score is 9 in (option B) is incorrect because The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) assesses the level of consciousness and neurological function but does not directly reflect fluid resuscitation effectiveness.
D. The patient's hemoglobin is within normal limits: (option D) is incorrect because Haemoglobin levels are important for assessing oxygen-carrying capacity but do not directly indicate the effectiveness of fluid resuscitation.
Therefore, the nurse can evaluate that fluid resuscitation for a 70 kg patient in shock is effective by observing a urine output of 35 ml over the last hour.
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