A 57-year-old male patient in DIC is to receive 1 unit of packed red blood cells over 2 hours. There is 250 mL in the infusion bag. The IV administration infusion set delivers 10 gtts/mL. At what flow rate (in drops per minute) should the nurse run the infusion?
Record your answer using a whole number.
The Correct Answer is ["21"]
flow rate for an infusion= (Volume in mL * Drop factor) / Time in minutes.
volume of the infusion bag is 250 mL, the drop factor is 10 gtts/mL, and the time is 2 hours, which is 120 minutes.
(250 mL * 10 gtts/mL) / 120 minutes = 2500 gtts / 120 minutes ≈ 20.83 gtts/minute. Therefore, the nurse should run the infusion at a rate of approximately 21 drops per minute to deliver 1 unit of packed red blood cells over the 2-hour period.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This pathway represents the normal sequence of electrical impulses that coordinate the contraction and relaxation of the heart chambers.
The electrical signal originates from the sinoatrial (SA) node, which is often referred to as the natural pacemaker of the heart. It is located in the right atrium and generates the electrical impulses that initiate each heartbeat. From the SA node, the electrical signal travels to the atrioventricular (AV) node, which is located at the junction between the atria and ventricles.
After passing through the AV node, the electrical impulse travels through the bundle of His (also known as the atrioventricular bundle) and divides into the right and left bundle branches. These branches continue the conduction pathway and deliver the electrical signal to the Purkinje fibers.
The Purkinje fibers spread the electrical impulse rapidly throughout the ventricles, stimulating the contraction of the ventricular muscle and allowing for efficient pumping of blood out of the heart.
Therefore, the correct sequence of the normal conduction pathway in the heart is:
A. SA node - AV node - bundle of His - bundle branches - Purkinje fibers.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
In septic shock, prompt administration of antibiotics is crucial in order to target the underlying infection and prevent further progression of the septic process. Antibiotics help to eradicate the causative organisms and reduce the bacterial load, which can help improve patient outcomes.
While all the options mentioned are important interventions in the management of septic shock, initiating antibiotic therapy is considered a priority in order to address the underlying infection and prevent sepsis-related complications.
A. Giving a 2000 mL normal saline bolus in (option A) is incorrect because: Fluid resuscitation is important in septic shock to restore intravascular volume, but antibiotic therapy takes precedence as it directly targets the underlying infection.
B. Starting an insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 110 to 150 mg/dL in (option B) is incorrect because Glycemic control is important in septic shock, but it is not the first priority compared to addressing the infection.
C. Giving acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg rectally in (option C) is incorrect because Antipyretic medications can help reduce fever, but they do not address the underlying infection or stabilize the patient's condition.
E. Starting norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep systolic blood pressure >90 mm Hg in (option E) is incorrect because: Vasopressor support may be necessary in septic shock to maintain adequate blood pressure, but initiating antibiotics takes priority in order to address the underlying infection.
Therefore, in a patient with septic shock presenting with the given signs and symptoms, the nurse should first implement the intervention of giving the prescribed antibiotics to target the underlying infection.
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