A 57-year-old male patient in DIC is to receive 1 unit of packed red blood cells over 2 hours. There is 250 mL in the infusion bag. The IV administration infusion set delivers 10 gtts/mL. At what flow rate (in drops per minute) should the nurse run the infusion?
Record your answer using a whole number.
The Correct Answer is ["21"]
flow rate for an infusion= (Volume in mL * Drop factor) / Time in minutes.
volume of the infusion bag is 250 mL, the drop factor is 10 gtts/mL, and the time is 2 hours, which is 120 minutes.
(250 mL * 10 gtts/mL) / 120 minutes = 2500 gtts / 120 minutes ≈ 20.83 gtts/minute. Therefore, the nurse should run the infusion at a rate of approximately 21 drops per minute to deliver 1 unit of packed red blood cells over the 2-hour period.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Central venous pressure (CVP) is a measurement of the pressure in the central veins, which reflects the blood volume and right-sided cardiac function. High CVP readings may indicate fluid overload or impaired cardiac function, and intervention is necessary to address the underlying cause.
Administering IV diuretic medications can help reduce fluid volume by increasing urine output and promoting fluid elimination. By removing excess fluid, the diuretic medications can help lower the CVP and alleviate the high pressures.
The other options mentioned are not the anticipated actions for addressing high CVP:
A. Increasing the IV fluid infusion rate in (option A) is incorrect because: If the CVP is already indicating high pressures, increasing the IV fluid infusion rate would further contribute to fluid overload and exacerbate the problem. This action would not be appropriate for high CVP readings.
C. Elevating the head of the patient's bed to 45 degrees in (option C) is incorrect because Positioning the patient with the head of the bed elevated is commonly done to prevent complications such as aspiration or improve respiratory function. While it may have other benefits, it does not directly address the high CVP.
D. Documenting the CVP and continuing to monitor in (option D) is incorrect because Documenting the CVP and continuing to monitor is important for ongoing assessment and evaluation. However, in the presence of high CVP readings, intervention is necessary to address the underlying issue rather than solely documenting and monitoring.
Therefore, when a patient's CVP monitor indicates high pressures following surgery, the nurse would anticipate administering IV diuretic medications to help reduce fluid volume and lower the CVP.

Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The patient's symptoms of fever and elevated white blood cell count suggest a potential infection and sepsis. Broad-spectrum antibiotics should be initiated promptly to cover a wide range of possible pathogens until further diagnostic tests and identification of the specific causative agent are obtained. Early administration of appropriate antibiotics is crucial in sepsis management to target the suspected infection and improve patient outcomes.
A. Cooling baths in (option A) is incorrect because: Cooling baths are typically used in the management of hyperthermia or specific conditions like heatstroke. While the patient has an elevated temperature, it is likely due to the systemic inflammatory response rather than solely hyperthermia.
C. Blood transfusion in (option C) is incorrect because Blood transfusion may be required in certain cases of sepsis if there is evidence of significant anemia or active bleeding. However, based on the information provided, there is no immediate indication of a blood transfusion.
D. NPO status in (option D) is incorrect because NPO status (nothing by mouth) is a general precautionary measure used in various situations, such as prior to surgery or to manage gastrointestinal complications. It is not a specific intervention in the sepsis resuscitation bundle.
Therefore, the nurse should initiate the intervention of administering broad-spectrum antibiotics in this scenario.

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