A 57-year-old male patient in DIC is to receive 1 unit of packed red blood cells over 2 hours. There is 250 mL in the infusion bag. The IV administration infusion set delivers 10 gtts/mL. At what flow rate (in drops per minute) should the nurse run the infusion?
Record your answer using a whole number.
The Correct Answer is ["21"]
flow rate for an infusion= (Volume in mL * Drop factor) / Time in minutes.
volume of the infusion bag is 250 mL, the drop factor is 10 gtts/mL, and the time is 2 hours, which is 120 minutes.
(250 mL * 10 gtts/mL) / 120 minutes = 2500 gtts / 120 minutes ≈ 20.83 gtts/minute. Therefore, the nurse should run the infusion at a rate of approximately 21 drops per minute to deliver 1 unit of packed red blood cells over the 2-hour period.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Septic shock is characterized by inadequate tissue perfusion and hypotension, which can lead to organ dysfunction and failure. The administration of intravenous fluids, such as a normal saline bolus, is the initial priority in the management of septic shock to restore intravascular volume and improve perfusion.
A. Draw an arterial blood gas (ABG) in (option A) is incorrect because: ABG may be ordered to assess the patient's acid-base status and oxygenation, but addressing hypotension and restoring perfusion through fluid administration takes priority.
B. Start insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 150 mg/dl or lower in (option B) is incorrect because: Hyperglycaemia is commonly observed in critically ill patients, including those with septic shock. While controlling blood glucose is important, it is not the immediate priority compared to addressing hypotension and restoring intravascular volume.
D. Titrate norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep mean arterial pressure (MAP) greater than 65 mm Hg in (option D) is incorrect because: Norepinephrine is a vasopressor medication used to increase blood pressure and perfusion in septic shock. While it may be necessary for the management of septic shock, fluid resuscitation should be initiated first to optimize intravascular volume before starting vasopressors.
Therefore, the first order that the nurse should accomplish in this scenario is to give a normal saline bolus IV of 30 mL/kg to address the hypotension and restore intravascular volume.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Oxygen saturation of 92% in (option A) is incorrect because While an oxygen saturation of 92% is suboptimal and may require intervention, it may not have the same immediate implications as low blood pressure. The healthcare provider should be informed, but addressing the blood pressure takes priority.
B. Skin cool and clammy in (option B) is correct because Cool and clammy skin is often associated with inadequate peripheral perfusion, which is a characteristic of septic shock.
C. Septic shock is characterized by systemic inflammation, vasodilation, and hypotension. Inadequate blood pressure is a significant concern in septic shock as it indicates poor tissue perfusion and compromised organ function. However, the mean arterial pressure is till acceptable.
D. Heart rate of 118 beats/minute in (option D) is incorrect because: Tachycardia is a common finding in septic shock and reflects the body's compensatory response to maintain cardiac output. While it is a significant finding, low blood pressure takes precedence in terms of urgency.
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