A 48-year-old female patient with septic shock presents with a BP of 70/46, pulse 136, respirations 32, temperature 104.0° F, and blood glucose of 246 mg/dl. The following have been ordered. Which order will the nurse accomplish first?

Draw an arterial blood gas (ABG).

Start insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 150 mg/dl or lower.

Give a normal saline bolus IV of 30mL/kg.

Titrate norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep MAP greater than 65 mm Hg.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Septic shock is characterized by inadequate tissue perfusion and hypotension, which can lead to organ dysfunction and failure. The administration of intravenous fluids, such as a normal saline bolus, is the initial priority in the management of septic shock to restore intravascular volume and improve perfusion.
A. Draw an arterial blood gas (ABG) in (option A) is incorrect because: ABG may be ordered to assess the patient's acid-base status and oxygenation, but addressing hypotension and restoring perfusion through fluid administration takes priority.
B. Start insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 150 mg/dl or lower in (option B) is incorrect because: Hyperglycaemia is commonly observed in critically ill patients, including those with septic shock. While controlling blood glucose is important, it is not the immediate priority compared to addressing hypotension and restoring intravascular volume.
D. Titrate norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep mean arterial pressure (MAP) greater than 65 mm Hg in (option D) is incorrect because: Norepinephrine is a vasopressor medication used to increase blood pressure and perfusion in septic shock. While it may be necessary for the management of septic shock, fluid resuscitation should be initiated first to optimize intravascular volume before starting vasopressors.
Therefore, the first order that the nurse should accomplish in this scenario is to give a normal saline bolus IV of 30 mL/kg to address the hypotension and restore intravascular volume.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Positioning the transducer level with the phlebostatic axis is a crucial step in accurate hemodynamic monitoring. The phlebostatic axis is an imaginary reference point located at the fourth intercostal space, mid-anterior/posterior chest. Placing the transducer at this level ensures that the pressure measurements obtained are reflective of the patient's true hemodynamic status.
A. Positioning the limb with the catheter insertion site at the level of the transducer in (option A) is incorrect because: While it is important to position the limb appropriately to avoid kinks or occlusions in the catheter tubing, this is not directly related to the accurate measurement of hemodynamic parameters.
C. Ensuring that the patient is lying with the head of the bed flat for all readings in (option C) is incorrect because The position of the patient's head does not directly impact the accuracy of hemodynamic monitoring unless it specifically relates to changes in preload or intracranial pressure monitoring.
D. Balancing and calibrating the hemodynamic monitoring equipment every hour in (option D) is incorrect because: While it is important to ensure that the monitoring equipment is calibrated and functioning properly, doing so every hour may not be necessary. Calibration frequency may vary based on institutional policies and patient stability.
Therefore, the correct action that demonstrates effective teaching about hemodynamic monitoring is positioning the transducer level with the phlebostatic axis.

A. decrease the respiratory rate. B. Leave the ventilator at the current settings. C. increase the tidal volume (VT). D. Increase the F102

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The ABG results show a pH of 7.50, PaCO2 of 29 mmHg, and HCO3 of 23 mEq/L, indicating respiratory alkalosis. In respiratory alkalosis, there is a decrease in PaCO2 (hypocapnia), which can be caused by excessive ventilation.
To address the respiratory alkalosis, the nurse should decrease the respiratory rate. This would help reduce the amount of ventilation provided and allow the patient to retain more carbon dioxide (CO2), thereby increasing the PaCO2 levels and restoring acid-base balance.
B. Leaving the ventilator at the current settings in (option B) is incorrect because it may exacerbate respiratory alkalosis as it would maintain the same level of ventilation.
C. Increasing the tidal volume (VT) in (option C) is incorrect because it would not address the respiratory alkalosis. Tidal volume refers to the volume of air delivered with each breath, while the issue in this case is excessive ventilation leading to hypocapnia.
D. Increasing the FiO2 (fraction of inspired oxygen) in (option D) is incorrect because it is not indicated based on the given ABG results. The oxygenation (PaO2) level is within normal limits (80 mmHg), suggesting adequate oxygenation.
It is important to consult with the healthcare provider or respiratory therapist for further guidance on adjusting the ventilator settings based on the patient's condition and response to therapy.

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A 48-year-old female patient with septic shock presents with a BP of 70/46, pulse 136, respirations 32, temperature 104.0° F, and blood glucose of 246 mg/dl. The following have been ordered. Which order will the nurse accomplish first?

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The ICU charge nurse will evaluate that teaching about hemodynamic monitoring for a new staff nurse has been effective when the new nurse does which of the following?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Four hours after mechanical ventilation is initiated for a patient with a suspected drug overdose, the patient's arterial blood gas (ABG) results include a pH of 7.50, Pa0 2 of 80 mm Hg. PaCO2 of 29 mmHg, and HCO3 of 23 mEq/L (23 mmo/L). The nurse will anticipate the need to:

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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