A 48-year-old female patient with septic shock presents with a BP of 70/46, pulse 136, respirations 32, temperature 104.0° F, and blood glucose of 246 mg/dl. The following have been ordered. Which order will the nurse accomplish first?
Draw an arterial blood gas (ABG).
Start insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 150 mg/dl or lower.
Give a normal saline bolus IV of 30mL/kg.
Titrate norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep MAP greater than 65 mm Hg.
The Correct Answer is C
Septic shock is characterized by inadequate tissue perfusion and hypotension, which can lead to organ dysfunction and failure. The administration of intravenous fluids, such as a normal saline bolus, is the initial priority in the management of septic shock to restore intravascular volume and improve perfusion.
A. Draw an arterial blood gas (ABG) in (option A) is incorrect because: ABG may be ordered to assess the patient's acid-base status and oxygenation, but addressing hypotension and restoring perfusion through fluid administration takes priority.
B. Start insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 150 mg/dl or lower in (option B) is incorrect because: Hyperglycaemia is commonly observed in critically ill patients, including those with septic shock. While controlling blood glucose is important, it is not the immediate priority compared to addressing hypotension and restoring intravascular volume.
D. Titrate norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep mean arterial pressure (MAP) greater than 65 mm Hg in (option D) is incorrect because: Norepinephrine is a vasopressor medication used to increase blood pressure and perfusion in septic shock. While it may be necessary for the management of septic shock, fluid resuscitation should be initiated first to optimize intravascular volume before starting vasopressors.
Therefore, the first order that the nurse should accomplish in this scenario is to give a normal saline bolus IV of 30 mL/kg to address the hypotension and restore intravascular volume.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The characteristics described in the monitor strip analysis suggest ventricular tachycardia. The absence of a visible P wave and the wide and distorted QRS complex indicates that the electrical impulse is originating in the ventricles rather than the atria. The ventricular rate of 196 and regular R-R intervals further support the diagnosis of ventricular tachycardia.
B. Atrial fibrillation in (option B) is incorrect because it is characterized by irregularly irregular R-R intervals and the absence of discernible P waves. The QRS complex is typically narrow
C. Atrial tachycardia in (option C) is incorrect because it would have a rapid atrial rate with regular R-R intervals, and P waves may or may not be discernible. The QRS complex is typically narrow.
D. Ventricular fibrillation in (option D) is incorrect because it would present as a chaotic, rapid, and irregular electrical activity with no discernible P waves, QRS complexes, or regular R-R intervals. It is a life-threatening emergency that requires immediate defibrillation.
Therefore, based on the provided information, the nurse would interpret the patient's cardiac rhythm as ventricular tachycardia. However, it is important to note that an accurate interpretation should be made by a qualified healthcare professional, and the patient's clinical context should also be considered.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Hemorrhagic shock is characterized by severe blood loss, leading to inadequate tissue perfusion and hypovolemia. The primary goal in the initial management of hemorrhagic shock is to restore intravascular volume and improve tissue perfusion. Administering intravenous fluids, such as normal saline solution, is a critical intervention to address hypovolemia and improve blood pressure.
A. Give Plasmanate 1 unit now in (option A) is incorrect because: Plasmanate is a plasma-derived product used to replace coagulation factors. While it may be necessary to address coagulation abnormalities, administering intravenous fluids to restore volume takes priority over specific blood products.
B. Prepare for endotracheal intubation in (option B) is incorrect because Endotracheal intubation may be required in cases of impending respiratory failure or compromised airway, but it should not be the first action in addressing hypovolemic shock.
D. Type and crossmatch for 4 units of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) in (option D) is incorrect because transferring packed red blood cells is an important intervention to address blood loss and improve oxygen-carrying capacity. However, before administering blood products, it is crucial to stabilize the patient's hemodynamics through fluid resuscitation.
Therefore, in a patient with hemorrhagic shock, the nurse's first priority among the given options is to give normal saline solution of 250 mL/hr to restore intravascular volume and improve tissue perfusion.
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