A 48-year-old female patient with septic shock presents with a BP of 70/46, pulse 136, respirations 32, temperature 104.0° F, and blood glucose of 246 mg/dl. The following have been ordered. Which order will the nurse accomplish first?
Draw an arterial blood gas (ABG).
Start insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 150 mg/dl or lower.
Give a normal saline bolus IV of 30mL/kg.
Titrate norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep MAP greater than 65 mm Hg.
The Correct Answer is C
Septic shock is characterized by inadequate tissue perfusion and hypotension, which can lead to organ dysfunction and failure. The administration of intravenous fluids, such as a normal saline bolus, is the initial priority in the management of septic shock to restore intravascular volume and improve perfusion.
A. Draw an arterial blood gas (ABG) in (option A) is incorrect because: ABG may be ordered to assess the patient's acid-base status and oxygenation, but addressing hypotension and restoring perfusion through fluid administration takes priority.
B. Start insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 150 mg/dl or lower in (option B) is incorrect because: Hyperglycaemia is commonly observed in critically ill patients, including those with septic shock. While controlling blood glucose is important, it is not the immediate priority compared to addressing hypotension and restoring intravascular volume.
D. Titrate norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep mean arterial pressure (MAP) greater than 65 mm Hg in (option D) is incorrect because: Norepinephrine is a vasopressor medication used to increase blood pressure and perfusion in septic shock. While it may be necessary for the management of septic shock, fluid resuscitation should be initiated first to optimize intravascular volume before starting vasopressors.
Therefore, the first order that the nurse should accomplish in this scenario is to give a normal saline bolus IV of 30 mL/kg to address the hypotension and restore intravascular volume.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["9000"]
Explanation
4 mL × body weight in kg × percentage of burn = total fluid volume for the first 24 hours Then, divide the total fluid volume by 2 to determine the fluid volume for the first 8 hours.
In this case, the patient weighs 90 kg and has a 50% burn injury.
4 mL × 90 kg × 50% = 18,000 mL (total fluid volume for 24 hours)
18,000 mL / 2 = 9,000 mL (fluid volume for the first 8 hours)
Therefore, the nurse would infuse the intravenous fluid resuscitation at a rate of 9,000 mL over the first 8 hours.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
In septic shock, one of the key goals of management is to restore and maintain adequate intravascular volume. However, in this case, the patient's urine output is low (30 mL/hr for the past 3 hours), suggesting inadequate renal perfusion and potential fluid overload.
Administering additional normal saline at an increased rate (250 mL/hr) without addressing the low urine output could potentially exacerbate fluid overload and further compromise the patient's condition.
A. Administer hydrocortisone (Solu-Cortef) 100 mg IV in (option A) is incorrect because: Hydrocortisone is commonly used in septic shock to help stabilize blood pressure and modulate the inflammatory response.
B. Giving PRN furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV in (option B) is incorrect because Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can be administered as needed to address fluid overload or to increase urine output if there is evidence of volume overload.
D. Titrate norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep systolic BP >90 mm Hg in (option D) is incorrect because: Norepinephrine is a vasopressor commonly used in septic shock to increase systemic vascular resistance and maintain adequate blood pressure.
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