A 48-year-old female patient with septic shock presents with a BP of 70/46, pulse 136, respirations 32, temperature 104.0° F, and blood glucose of 246 mg/dl. The following have been ordered. Which order will the nurse accomplish first?

Draw an arterial blood gas (ABG).

Start insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 150 mg/dl or lower.

Give a normal saline bolus IV of 30mL/kg.

Titrate norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep MAP greater than 65 mm Hg.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Septic shock is characterized by inadequate tissue perfusion and hypotension, which can lead to organ dysfunction and failure. The administration of intravenous fluids, such as a normal saline bolus, is the initial priority in the management of septic shock to restore intravascular volume and improve perfusion.
A. Draw an arterial blood gas (ABG) in (option A) is incorrect because: ABG may be ordered to assess the patient's acid-base status and oxygenation, but addressing hypotension and restoring perfusion through fluid administration takes priority.
B. Start insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 150 mg/dl or lower in (option B) is incorrect because: Hyperglycaemia is commonly observed in critically ill patients, including those with septic shock. While controlling blood glucose is important, it is not the immediate priority compared to addressing hypotension and restoring intravascular volume.
D. Titrate norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep mean arterial pressure (MAP) greater than 65 mm Hg in (option D) is incorrect because: Norepinephrine is a vasopressor medication used to increase blood pressure and perfusion in septic shock. While it may be necessary for the management of septic shock, fluid resuscitation should be initiated first to optimize intravascular volume before starting vasopressors.
Therefore, the first order that the nurse should accomplish in this scenario is to give a normal saline bolus IV of 30 mL/kg to address the hypotension and restore intravascular volume.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Oxygen saturation of 92% in (option A) is incorrect because While an oxygen saturation of 92% is suboptimal and may require intervention, it may not have the same immediate implications as low blood pressure. The healthcare provider should be informed, but addressing the blood pressure takes priority.
B. Skin cool and clammy in (option B) is correct because Cool and clammy skin is often associated with inadequate peripheral perfusion, which is a characteristic of septic shock.

C. Septic shock is characterized by systemic inflammation, vasodilation, and hypotension. Inadequate blood pressure is a significant concern in septic shock as it indicates poor tissue perfusion and compromised organ function. However, the mean arterial pressure is till acceptable.
D. Heart rate of 118 beats/minute in (option D) is incorrect because: Tachycardia is a common finding in septic shock and reflects the body's compensatory response to maintain cardiac output. While it is a significant finding, low blood pressure takes precedence in terms of urgency.

A. decrease the respiratory rate. B. Leave the ventilator at the current settings. C. increase the tidal volume (VT). D. Increase the F102

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The ABG results show a pH of 7.50, PaCO2 of 29 mmHg, and HCO3 of 23 mEq/L, indicating respiratory alkalosis. In respiratory alkalosis, there is a decrease in PaCO2 (hypocapnia), which can be caused by excessive ventilation.
To address the respiratory alkalosis, the nurse should decrease the respiratory rate. This would help reduce the amount of ventilation provided and allow the patient to retain more carbon dioxide (CO2), thereby increasing the PaCO2 levels and restoring acid-base balance.
B. Leaving the ventilator at the current settings in (option B) is incorrect because it may exacerbate respiratory alkalosis as it would maintain the same level of ventilation.
C. Increasing the tidal volume (VT) in (option C) is incorrect because it would not address the respiratory alkalosis. Tidal volume refers to the volume of air delivered with each breath, while the issue in this case is excessive ventilation leading to hypocapnia.
D. Increasing the FiO2 (fraction of inspired oxygen) in (option D) is incorrect because it is not indicated based on the given ABG results. The oxygenation (PaO2) level is within normal limits (80 mmHg), suggesting adequate oxygenation.
It is important to consult with the healthcare provider or respiratory therapist for further guidance on adjusting the ventilator settings based on the patient's condition and response to therapy.

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A 48-year-old female patient with septic shock presents with a BP of 70/46, pulse 136, respirations 32, temperature 104.0° F, and blood glucose of 246 mg/dl. The following have been ordered. Which order will the nurse accomplish first?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is caring for a patient who has septic shock. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Four hours after mechanical ventilation is initiated for a patient with a suspected drug overdose, the patient's arterial blood gas (ABG) results include a pH of 7.50, Pa0 2 of 80 mm Hg. PaCO2 of 29 mmHg, and HCO3 of 23 mEq/L (23 mmo/L). The nurse will anticipate the need to:

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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