A 30-year-old female patient is admitted to the emergency department with two systemic inflammatory response syndrome variables: temperature of 100.2°F (35°C) and high blood sugar. Which intervention from the sepsis resuscitation bundle does the nurse initiate?

Cooling baths

Blood transfusion

30 ml/kg of Lactated Ringers (LR)

NPO Status

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

The sepsis resuscitation bundle typically includes the administration of intravenous fluids to restore adequate perfusion and address hypovolemia. The initial fluid of choice is often the crystalloid solution, such as Lactated Ringers (LR), and the recommended initial fluid bolus is 30 ml/kg. This intervention aims to optimize intravascular volume and improve tissue perfusion.

A. Cooling baths in (option A) is incorrect because they may be used in the management of hyperthermia or fever, but they are not specific interventions in the sepsis resuscitation bundle.

B. Blood transfusion in (option B) is incorrect it may be necessary in certain cases of sepsis, such as severe anemia or hypovolemia, but it is not a routine intervention in the sepsis resuscitation bundle based solely on the provided information.

D. NPO status (nothing by mouth) in (option D) is incorrect because it is not a specific intervention in the sepsis resuscitation bundle. It may be indicated in certain cases, such as when surgery is required or if there is a risk of aspiration, but it does not directly address the sepsis-related variables mentioned.

It is important to note that the specific management of sepsis may vary based on the patient's individual condition, clinical presentation, and healthcare provider's orders.

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Correct Answer is ["18"]

Explanation

Step 1: Convert the patient's weight from pounds to kilograms. 130 pounds ÷ 2.205 (1 pound = 0.453592 kilograms) ≈ 58.97 kilograms

Step 2: Calculate the total dosage of Dobutamine required per hour based on the weight-specific dose. 2.5 mcg/kg/min × 58.97 kg = 147.425 mcg/min

Step 3: Calculate the infusion rate (mL/hr) using the concentration of Dobutamine in the prepared solution. The solution contains 250 mg of Dobutamine in 500 mL, which means there are 250,000 mcg of Dobutamine in 500 mL. To determine the mL/hr, divide the required dosage (147.425 mcg/min) by the amount of Dobutamine in 500 mL (250,000 mcg) and multiply by 500 mL (volume of the solution).

(147.425 mcg/min ÷ 250,000 mcg) × 500 mL ≈ 0.295 mL/min

To get the mL/hr, we convert the rate from minutes to hours (60 minutes = 1 hour):

0.295 mL/min × 60 min/hr ≈ 17.7 mL/hr

Round the answer to the nearest whole number:

Approximately 18 mL/hr of Dobutamine should be administered to the patient.

A. Administer the prescribed Beta-Blocker B. Prepare for Cardioversion per hospital protocol. C. Give 100% oxygen per non-rebreather mask. D. Start CPR

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The absence of palpable pulses suggests a lack of effective cardiac output, and the patient is in cardiac arrest. In this situation, immediate initiation of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is crucial to maintain circulation and provide oxygenation to vital organs.
CPR consists of chest compressions and rescue breaths to circulate oxygenated blood to the brain and other vital organs. It is the primary intervention in cardiac arrest to provide temporary life support until advanced cardiac life support (ACLS) measures, such as defibrillation or medication administration, can be initiated.
A. Administering the prescribed Beta-Blocker in (option A) is incorrect because Administering a beta-blocker is not the initial action in a patient who is in cardiac arrest and requires immediate resuscitation.
B. Prepare for Cardioversion per hospital protocol (option B) is incorrect because Cardioversion, which is the delivery of an electric shock to the heart, may be considered in certain situations like unstable ventricular tachycardia or certain supraventricular tachycardias. However, in the given scenario, the patient is unresponsive and has no pulses, indicating cardiac arrest where CPR takes precedence over cardioversion.
C. Give 100% oxygen per non-rebreather mask in (option C) is incorrect because: While oxygenation is important, it should not delay or replace the initiation of CPR, which is the immediate priority in a patient without palpable pulses.
Therefore, the first action that the nurse should take in this scenario is to start CPR.

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A 30-year-old female patient is admitted to the emergency department with two systemic inflammatory response syndrome variables: temperature of 100.2°F (35°C) and high blood sugar. Which intervention from the sepsis resuscitation bundle does the nurse initiate?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is ["18"]

Explanation

At the beginning of your shift, you start your rounds on your patients. Upon entering this patient’s room, you observe that the cardiac monitor shows sinus tachycardia, is apneic and no pulses are palpable by the nurse. What is the first action that the nurse should take?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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