A 30-year-old female patient is admitted to the emergency department with two systemic inflammatory response syndrome variables: temperature of 100.2°F (35°C) and high blood sugar. Which intervention from the sepsis resuscitation bundle does the nurse initiate?
Cooling baths
Blood transfusion
30 ml/kg of Lactated Ringers (LR)
NPO Status
The Correct Answer is C
The sepsis resuscitation bundle typically includes the administration of intravenous fluids to restore adequate perfusion and address hypovolemia. The initial fluid of choice is often the crystalloid solution, such as Lactated Ringers (LR), and the recommended initial fluid bolus is 30 ml/kg. This intervention aims to optimize intravascular volume and improve tissue perfusion.
A. Cooling baths in (option A) is incorrect because they may be used in the management of hyperthermia or fever, but they are not specific interventions in the sepsis resuscitation bundle.
B. Blood transfusion in (option B) is incorrect it may be necessary in certain cases of sepsis, such as severe anemia or hypovolemia, but it is not a routine intervention in the sepsis resuscitation bundle based solely on the provided information.
D. NPO status (nothing by mouth) in (option D) is incorrect because it is not a specific intervention in the sepsis resuscitation bundle. It may be indicated in certain cases, such as when surgery is required or if there is a risk of aspiration, but it does not directly address the sepsis-related variables mentioned.
It is important to note that the specific management of sepsis may vary based on the patient's individual condition, clinical presentation, and healthcare provider's orders.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
In a patient receiving mechanical ventilation, a high respiratory rate can indicate increased work of breathing and potential airway obstruction. COPD patients, in particular, may have excessive mucus production and airway inflammation, leading to mucus plugging and compromised airway clearance. Suctioning may be necessary to remove excessive secretions and maintain a patent airway.
A. The pulse oximeter shows a SpO2 of 90% in (option A) is incorrect because While a SpO2 of 90% is suboptimal and may require intervention, it does not specifically indicate the need for suctioning. Other interventions, such as adjusting oxygen delivery or ventilation settings, may be more appropriate.
B. The patient has not been suctioned for the last 6 hours in (option B) is incorrect because The duration since the last suctioning episode alone does not necessarily indicate the need for suctioning. The need for suctioning should be based on the patient's clinical presentation, such as signs of airway obstruction or excessive secretions.
D. The lungs have occasional audible expiratory wheezes in (option D) which is incorrect because Occasional audible expiratory wheezes may be common in patients with COPD and may not specifically indicate the need for suctioning. Wheezing is more commonly associated with narrowing of the airways, and suctioning is typically performed to clear secretions or maintain airway patency.
C. Therefore, in a COPD patient receiving mechanical ventilation, a high respiratory rate (C) is the assessment information that would indicate the need for suctioning to help remove excessive secretions and ensure a patent airway

Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Septic shock is characterized by inadequate tissue perfusion and hypotension, which can lead to organ dysfunction and failure. The administration of intravenous fluids, such as a normal saline bolus, is the initial priority in the management of septic shock to restore intravascular volume and improve perfusion.
A. Draw an arterial blood gas (ABG) in (option A) is incorrect because: ABG may be ordered to assess the patient's acid-base status and oxygenation, but addressing hypotension and restoring perfusion through fluid administration takes priority.
B. Start insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 150 mg/dl or lower in (option B) is incorrect because: Hyperglycaemia is commonly observed in critically ill patients, including those with septic shock. While controlling blood glucose is important, it is not the immediate priority compared to addressing hypotension and restoring intravascular volume.
D. Titrate norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep mean arterial pressure (MAP) greater than 65 mm Hg in (option D) is incorrect because: Norepinephrine is a vasopressor medication used to increase blood pressure and perfusion in septic shock. While it may be necessary for the management of septic shock, fluid resuscitation should be initiated first to optimize intravascular volume before starting vasopressors.
Therefore, the first order that the nurse should accomplish in this scenario is to give a normal saline bolus IV of 30 mL/kg to address the hypotension and restore intravascular volume.
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