The emergency department nurse is assessing a patient who is in the compensatory stage of hypovolemic shock. Which manifestations does the nurse expect? Select all that apply.

Elevated heart rate.

Elevated respiratory rate.

Decreased pulse rate.

Decrease systolic blood pressure.

Decreased urine output.

Bilateral crackles in the lung bases.

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : A,B,D,E

These manifestations occur as compensatory mechanisms in response to decreased blood volume and compromised tissue perfusion. The body attempts to compensate for the inadequate circulating volume by increasing heart rate (A) and respiratory rate (B) to enhance oxygen delivery.
D. The decreased systolic blood pressure (D) is a result of decreased cardiac output and vasoconstriction in an attempt to maintain perfusion to vital organs.
E. The decreased urine output (E) is a result of decreased renal perfusion due to decreased blood volume.
C. Decreased pulse rate in (option C) is incorrect because it is not typically seen in the compensatory stage of hypovolemic shock. The body tries to increase heart rate to maintain cardiac output and compensate for the decreased blood volume.
F. Bilateral crackles in (option F) is incorrect because the lung bases are more commonly associated with conditions such as pulmonary edema or fluid overload, rather than the compensatory stage of hypovolemic shock.
It's important to note that the manifestations of shock can vary depending on individual patient factors and the underlying cause of shock. Therefore, a comprehensive assessment and clinical judgment are necessary to fully evaluate the patient's condition.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

In septic shock, prompt administration of antibiotics is crucial in order to target the underlying infection and prevent further progression of the septic process. Antibiotics help to eradicate the causative organisms and reduce the bacterial load, which can help improve patient outcomes.
While all the options mentioned are important interventions in the management of septic shock, initiating antibiotic therapy is considered a priority in order to address the underlying infection and prevent sepsis-related complications.
A. Giving a 2000 mL normal saline bolus in (option A) is incorrect because: Fluid resuscitation is important in septic shock to restore intravascular volume, but antibiotic therapy takes precedence as it directly targets the underlying infection.
B. Starting an insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 110 to 150 mg/dL in (option B) is incorrect because Glycemic control is important in septic shock, but it is not the first priority compared to addressing the infection.
C. Giving acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg rectally in (option C) is incorrect because Antipyretic medications can help reduce fever, but they do not address the underlying infection or stabilize the patient's condition.
E. Starting norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep systolic blood pressure >90 mm Hg in (option E) is incorrect because: Vasopressor support may be necessary in septic shock to maintain adequate blood pressure, but initiating antibiotics takes priority in order to address the underlying infection.
Therefore, in a patient with septic shock presenting with the given signs and symptoms, the nurse should first implement the intervention of giving the prescribed antibiotics to target the underlying infection.

A. Draw an arterial blood gas (ABG). B. Start insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 150 mg/dl or lower. C. Give a normal saline bolus IV of 30mL/kg. D. Titrate norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep MAP greater than 65 mm Hg.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Septic shock is characterized by inadequate tissue perfusion and hypotension, which can lead to organ dysfunction and failure. The administration of intravenous fluids, such as a normal saline bolus, is the initial priority in the management of septic shock to restore intravascular volume and improve perfusion.
A. Draw an arterial blood gas (ABG) in (option A) is incorrect because: ABG may be ordered to assess the patient's acid-base status and oxygenation, but addressing hypotension and restoring perfusion through fluid administration takes priority.
B. Start insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 150 mg/dl or lower in (option B) is incorrect because: Hyperglycaemia is commonly observed in critically ill patients, including those with septic shock. While controlling blood glucose is important, it is not the immediate priority compared to addressing hypotension and restoring intravascular volume.
D. Titrate norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep mean arterial pressure (MAP) greater than 65 mm Hg in (option D) is incorrect because: Norepinephrine is a vasopressor medication used to increase blood pressure and perfusion in septic shock. While it may be necessary for the management of septic shock, fluid resuscitation should be initiated first to optimize intravascular volume before starting vasopressors.
Therefore, the first order that the nurse should accomplish in this scenario is to give a normal saline bolus IV of 30 mL/kg to address the hypotension and restore intravascular volume.

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The emergency department nurse is assessing a patient who is in the compensatory stage of hypovolemic shock. Which manifestations does the nurse expect? Select all that apply.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The patient weighing 147 pounds with septic shock has a BP of 70/46 mm Hg, pulse 136, respirations 30, temperature 104° F, and blood glucose 391 mg/dL. Which intervention red by the health care provider should the nurse implement first?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A 48-year-old female patient with septic shock presents with a BP of 70/46, pulse 136, respirations 32, temperature 104.0° F, and blood glucose of 246 mg/dl. The following have been ordered. Which order will the nurse accomplish first?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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