A 66-year-old female patient in septic shock has received fluid resuscitation, but their mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 52 mmHg. The nurse anticipates the administration of which one of the following?
Nitroglycerine (Tridil).
Atenolol (Tenormin).
Dobutamine (Dobutrex).
Norepinephrine (Levophed).
The Correct Answer is D
Norepinephrine is a vasopressor medication commonly used in the management of septic shock. It acts as a potent vasoconstrictor to increase systemic vascular resistance and improve blood pressure. By constricting blood vessels, norepinephrine helps restore tissue perfusion and improve organ function.
A. Nitroglycerine (Tridil) in (option A) is incorrect because: Nitroglycerine is a vasodilator and would further lower blood pressure. It is not suitable for a patient with septic shock who already has low blood pressure.
B. Atenolol (Tenormin) in (option B) is incorrect because: Atenolol is a beta-blocker and would further decrease heart rate and blood pressure. It is not appropriate for a patient in septic shock who requires intervention to increase blood pressure.
C. Dobutamine (Dobutrex) in (option C) is incorrect because: Dobutamine is an inotropic medication used to increase cardiac output. While it can be helpful in certain types of shock, such as cardiogenic shock, it is not the first-line choice for septic shock when there is inadequate blood pressure response.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Systemic vascular resistance represents the resistance to blood flow in the systemic circulation. It is an important indicator of afterload, which is the force against which the left ventricle must pump to eject blood into the systemic circulation. By monitoring the changes in SVR, the nurse can assess the impact of medications aimed at reducing left ventricular afterload.
A. Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) in (option A) is incorrect because: PAWP is a measure of left ventricular preload and reflects the pressure within the left atrium and left ventricle at end-diastole. It is not specifically related to afterload reduction.
C. Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) in (option C) is incorrect because: PVR represents the resistance to blood flow in the pulmonary circulation. It is not directly related to left ventricular afterload.
D. Central venous pressure (CVP) in (option D) is incorrect because: CVP reflects the pressure in the right atrium and is an indicator of right-sided cardiac function. It is not specifically related to left ventricular afterload reduction.
Therefore, to assess the effectiveness of medications in reducing left ventricular afterload, the nurse should monitor the systemic vascular resistance (SVR).
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
In septic shock, prompt administration of antibiotics is crucial in order to target the underlying infection and prevent further progression of the septic process. Antibiotics help to eradicate the causative organisms and reduce the bacterial load, which can help improve patient outcomes.
While all the options mentioned are important interventions in the management of septic shock, initiating antibiotic therapy is considered a priority in order to address the underlying infection and prevent sepsis-related complications.
A. Giving a 2000 mL normal saline bolus in (option A) is incorrect because: Fluid resuscitation is important in septic shock to restore intravascular volume, but antibiotic therapy takes precedence as it directly targets the underlying infection.
B. Starting an insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 110 to 150 mg/dL in (option B) is incorrect because Glycemic control is important in septic shock, but it is not the first priority compared to addressing the infection.
C. Giving acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg rectally in (option C) is incorrect because Antipyretic medications can help reduce fever, but they do not address the underlying infection or stabilize the patient's condition.
E. Starting norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep systolic blood pressure >90 mm Hg in (option E) is incorrect because: Vasopressor support may be necessary in septic shock to maintain adequate blood pressure, but initiating antibiotics takes priority in order to address the underlying infection.
Therefore, in a patient with septic shock presenting with the given signs and symptoms, the nurse should first implement the intervention of giving the prescribed antibiotics to target the underlying infection.
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