A 66-year-old female patient in septic shock has received fluid resuscitation, but their mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 52 mmHg. The nurse anticipates the administration of which one of the following?

Nitroglycerine (Tridil).

Atenolol (Tenormin).

Dobutamine (Dobutrex).

Norepinephrine (Levophed).

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Norepinephrine is a vasopressor medication commonly used in the management of septic shock. It acts as a potent vasoconstrictor to increase systemic vascular resistance and improve blood pressure. By constricting blood vessels, norepinephrine helps restore tissue perfusion and improve organ function.
A. Nitroglycerine (Tridil) in (option A) is incorrect because: Nitroglycerine is a vasodilator and would further lower blood pressure. It is not suitable for a patient with septic shock who already has low blood pressure.
B. Atenolol (Tenormin) in (option B) is incorrect because: Atenolol is a beta-blocker and would further decrease heart rate and blood pressure. It is not appropriate for a patient in septic shock who requires intervention to increase blood pressure.
C. Dobutamine (Dobutrex) in (option C) is incorrect because: Dobutamine is an inotropic medication used to increase cardiac output. While it can be helpful in certain types of shock, such as cardiogenic shock, it is not the first-line choice for septic shock when there is inadequate blood pressure response.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

In the initial 24 hours after burn injury, fluid resuscitation is a critical priority in the management of burn patients. Burn injuries can lead to significant fluid loss, both locally at the burn site and systemically due to increased capillary permeability. Fluid resuscitation aims to restore and maintain adequate intravascular volume, ensuring sufficient tissue perfusion and organ function.
The Parkland Formula is commonly used to guide fluid resuscitation in burn patients. It involves calculating the total volume of fluid needed in the first 24 hours, with a portion given in the initial hours after injury and the remainder given over the remaining hours.
A. Sterile dressing changes (option A) are incorrect because they are important in wound care management for burn patients to prevent infection. However, fluid resuscitation takes precedence within the first 24 hours.
B. Emotional support (option B) is incorrect because it is an essential aspect of burn care, as burn injuries can have a significant psychological impact. While emotional support is crucial for the patient's overall well-being, it may not be the highest priority within the first 24 hours compared to addressing the physiological needs of fluid resuscitation.
D. Range-of-motion exercises (option D) are incorrect because they are important for preventing contractures and maintaining joint mobility in burn patients. However, they are typically initiated after the initial fluid resuscitation phase and wound stabilization.
Therefore, the priority the nurse anticipates within the first 24 hours for a 31-year-old male patient with burn injuries is fluid resuscitation.

A. Administer the prescribed Beta-Blocker B. Prepare for Cardioversion per hospital protocol. C. Give 100% oxygen per non-rebreather mask. D. Start CPR

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The absence of palpable pulses suggests a lack of effective cardiac output, and the patient is in cardiac arrest. In this situation, immediate initiation of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is crucial to maintain circulation and provide oxygenation to vital organs.
CPR consists of chest compressions and rescue breaths to circulate oxygenated blood to the brain and other vital organs. It is the primary intervention in cardiac arrest to provide temporary life support until advanced cardiac life support (ACLS) measures, such as defibrillation or medication administration, can be initiated.
A. Administering the prescribed Beta-Blocker in (option A) is incorrect because Administering a beta-blocker is not the initial action in a patient who is in cardiac arrest and requires immediate resuscitation.
B. Prepare for Cardioversion per hospital protocol (option B) is incorrect because Cardioversion, which is the delivery of an electric shock to the heart, may be considered in certain situations like unstable ventricular tachycardia or certain supraventricular tachycardias. However, in the given scenario, the patient is unresponsive and has no pulses, indicating cardiac arrest where CPR takes precedence over cardioversion.
C. Give 100% oxygen per non-rebreather mask in (option C) is incorrect because: While oxygenation is important, it should not delay or replace the initiation of CPR, which is the immediate priority in a patient without palpable pulses.
Therefore, the first action that the nurse should take in this scenario is to start CPR.

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A 66-year-old female patient in septic shock has received fluid resuscitation, but their mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 52 mmHg. The nurse anticipates the administration of which one of the following?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A 31-year-old male patient with burn injuries is admitted to the burn unit. Which priority does the nurse anticipate within the first 24 hours?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

At the beginning of your shift, you start your rounds on your patients. Upon entering this patient’s room, you observe that the cardiac monitor shows sinus tachycardia, is apneic and no pulses are palpable by the nurse. What is the first action that the nurse should take?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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