A 66-year-old female patient in septic shock has received fluid resuscitation, but their mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 52 mmHg. The nurse anticipates the administration of which one of the following?

Nitroglycerine (Tridil).

Atenolol (Tenormin).

Dobutamine (Dobutrex).

Norepinephrine (Levophed).

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Norepinephrine is a vasopressor medication commonly used in the management of septic shock. It acts as a potent vasoconstrictor to increase systemic vascular resistance and improve blood pressure. By constricting blood vessels, norepinephrine helps restore tissue perfusion and improve organ function.
A. Nitroglycerine (Tridil) in (option A) is incorrect because: Nitroglycerine is a vasodilator and would further lower blood pressure. It is not suitable for a patient with septic shock who already has low blood pressure.
B. Atenolol (Tenormin) in (option B) is incorrect because: Atenolol is a beta-blocker and would further decrease heart rate and blood pressure. It is not appropriate for a patient in septic shock who requires intervention to increase blood pressure.
C. Dobutamine (Dobutrex) in (option C) is incorrect because: Dobutamine is an inotropic medication used to increase cardiac output. While it can be helpful in certain types of shock, such as cardiogenic shock, it is not the first-line choice for septic shock when there is inadequate blood pressure response.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Systemic vascular resistance represents the resistance to blood flow in the systemic circulation. It is an important indicator of afterload, which is the force against which the left ventricle must pump to eject blood into the systemic circulation. By monitoring the changes in SVR, the nurse can assess the impact of medications aimed at reducing left ventricular afterload.
A. Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) in (option A) is incorrect because: PAWP is a measure of left ventricular preload and reflects the pressure within the left atrium and left ventricle at end-diastole. It is not specifically related to afterload reduction.
C. Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) in (option C) is incorrect because: PVR represents the resistance to blood flow in the pulmonary circulation. It is not directly related to left ventricular afterload.
D. Central venous pressure (CVP) in (option D) is incorrect because: CVP reflects the pressure in the right atrium and is an indicator of right-sided cardiac function. It is not specifically related to left ventricular afterload reduction.
Therefore, to assess the effectiveness of medications in reducing left ventricular afterload, the nurse should monitor the systemic vascular resistance (SVR).

A. QTc interval 0.33 to 0.47 seconds B. QT interval that varies with HR C. QRS interval <0.12 seconds D. PR interval 0.12 to 0.24 seconds

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The QTc (corrected QT) interval is a measure of the time it takes for the ventricles to depolarize and repolarize during a cardiac cycle. It is corrected for heart rate (HR) to account for variations in the cardiac cycle length.
The normal range for the QTc interval varies depending on the calculation method used but generally falls within 0.36 to 0.44 seconds. In the given options, the range of 0.33 to 0.47 seconds for the QTc interval is wider than the normal range, suggesting a prolonged QTc interval, which can be indicative of a potential risk for arrhythmias, including ventricular tachycardia and torsades de pointes.
B. QT interval that varies with HR in (option B) is normal because The QT interval alone can vary with heart rate, and this is considered a normal physiological adaptation.
C. QRS interval <0.12 seconds in (option C) is normal because The QRS interval represents the time it takes for ventricular depolarization and is normally less than 0.12 seconds.
D. PR interval 0.12 to 0.24 seconds in (option D) is normal because The PR interval represents the time it takes for atrial depolarization and conduction through the AV node. The normal range is typically 0.12 to 0.20 seconds.

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A 66-year-old female patient in septic shock has received fluid resuscitation, but their mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 52 mmHg. The nurse anticipates the administration of which one of the following?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Explanation

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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