The emergency department nurse reviews the medical record of a 41-year-old male patient with hemorrhagic shock, which contains the following information.
Physical Assessment Findings Pulse 140 beats/min and thready
Diagnostic Findings ABG respiratory acidosis
Blood pressure 60/40 mm Hg Respirations 40/min and shallow
Lactate level 7 mmol/L
All of these provider prescriptions are ordered for the patient. Which does the nurse carry out first?
Give Plasmanate 1 unit now.
Prepare for endotracheal intubation.
Give normal saline solution 250 mL/hr.
Type and crossmatch for 4 units of packed red blood cells (PRBCs).
The Correct Answer is C
Hemorrhagic shock is characterized by severe blood loss, leading to inadequate tissue perfusion and hypovolemia. The primary goal in the initial management of hemorrhagic shock is to restore intravascular volume and improve tissue perfusion. Administering intravenous fluids, such as normal saline solution, is a critical intervention to address hypovolemia and improve blood pressure.
A. Give Plasmanate 1 unit now in (option A) is incorrect because: Plasmanate is a plasma-derived product used to replace coagulation factors. While it may be necessary to address coagulation abnormalities, administering intravenous fluids to restore volume takes priority over specific blood products.
B. Prepare for endotracheal intubation in (option B) is incorrect because Endotracheal intubation may be required in cases of impending respiratory failure or compromised airway, but it should not be the first action in addressing hypovolemic shock.
D. Type and crossmatch for 4 units of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) in (option D) is incorrect because transferring packed red blood cells is an important intervention to address blood loss and improve oxygen-carrying capacity. However, before administering blood products, it is crucial to stabilize the patient's hemodynamics through fluid resuscitation.
Therefore, in a patient with hemorrhagic shock, the nurse's first priority among the given options is to give normal saline solution of 250 mL/hr to restore intravascular volume and improve tissue perfusion.

Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Assessing tissue perfusion is crucial in evaluating the adequacy of oxygen and nutrient delivery to the body's tissues. While multiple factors contribute to tissue perfusion, the options provided in choice B are key indicators:
Level of consciousness: Altered mental status or changes in the patient's level of consciousness can be a sign of impaired cerebral perfusion, which reflects overall tissue perfusion.
Urine output: Monitoring urine output provides information about renal perfusion and kidney function. Decreased urine output can be indicative of inadequate tissue perfusion.
Lactate level: Lactate is a by-product of anaerobic metabolism that accumulates when there is insufficient oxygen delivery to tissues. Elevated lactate levels indicate tissue hypoperfusion and cellular oxygen debt.
A. Pupil response, pulse pressure, and urine output in (option A) are incorrect because While pupil response and pulse pressure may provide some information about perfusion, they do not encompass a comprehensive assessment of tissue perfusion. Additionally, assessing urine output is important, but it alone may not provide a complete picture of tissue perfusion status.
C. Blood pressure, pulse, and respirations in (option C) are incorrect because Blood pressure, pulse, and respirations are important vital signs to monitor, but they do not solely indicate tissue perfusion. Hypotension, for example, can be a late sign of inadequate tissue perfusion.
D. Breath sounds, heart rate, and pupil response in (option D) are incorrect because: Although breath sounds and heart rate can be affected by changes in tissue perfusion, they are not specific or comprehensive indicators of tissue perfusion status. Pupil response alone does not provide a complete assessment of tissue perfusion.
Therefore, the most accurate assessment of tissue perfusion in a patient in shock involves evaluating the level of consciousness, urine output, and lactate levels.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","E"]
Explanation
A. Narrowed pulse pressure: In cardiogenic shock, the cardiac output is compromised, resulting in reduced stroke volume and subsequent narrowed pulse pressure. The pulse pressure is the difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure.
B. Tachycardia: Tachycardia is a compensatory response in cardiogenic shock, as the body attempts to increase cardiac output to maintain tissue perfusion despite decreased stroke volume. Increased heart rate is a common finding in this condition.
D. Pulmonary congestion: Cardiogenic shock is often associated with impaired left ventricular function, leading to an inadequate pump mechanism. This can result in fluid accumulation and congestion in the pulmonary circulation, leading to pulmonary edema and congestion. Patients may experience symptoms such as dyspnea, crackles on lung auscultation, and increased work of breathing.
E. Elevated pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP): PAWP is a measurement obtained during invasive hemodynamic monitoring. In cardiogenic shock, the impaired left ventricular function leads to increased left atrial pressure, which is reflected by an elevated PAWP. Elevated PAWP indicates increased fluid volume and congestion in the left side of the heart.
C. Elevated SBP in (option C) is incorrect because Elevated systolic blood pressure (SBP) is not a typical finding in cardiogenic shock. Instead, hypotension or decreased blood pressure is commonly observed due to reduced cardiac output.

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