The emergency department nurse reviews the medical record of a 41-year-old male patient with hemorrhagic shock, which contains the following information.
Physical Assessment Findings Pulse 140 beats/min and thready
Diagnostic Findings ABG respiratory acidosis
Blood pressure 60/40 mm Hg Respirations 40/min and shallow
Lactate level 7 mmol/L
All of these provider prescriptions are ordered for the patient. Which does the nurse carry out first?
Give Plasmanate 1 unit now.
Prepare for endotracheal intubation.
Give normal saline solution 250 mL/hr.
Type and crossmatch for 4 units of packed red blood cells (PRBCs).
The Correct Answer is C
Hemorrhagic shock is characterized by severe blood loss, leading to inadequate tissue perfusion and hypovolemia. The primary goal in the initial management of hemorrhagic shock is to restore intravascular volume and improve tissue perfusion. Administering intravenous fluids, such as normal saline solution, is a critical intervention to address hypovolemia and improve blood pressure.
A. Give Plasmanate 1 unit now in (option A) is incorrect because: Plasmanate is a plasma-derived product used to replace coagulation factors. While it may be necessary to address coagulation abnormalities, administering intravenous fluids to restore volume takes priority over specific blood products.
B. Prepare for endotracheal intubation in (option B) is incorrect because Endotracheal intubation may be required in cases of impending respiratory failure or compromised airway, but it should not be the first action in addressing hypovolemic shock.
D. Type and crossmatch for 4 units of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) in (option D) is incorrect because transferring packed red blood cells is an important intervention to address blood loss and improve oxygen-carrying capacity. However, before administering blood products, it is crucial to stabilize the patient's hemodynamics through fluid resuscitation.
Therefore, in a patient with hemorrhagic shock, the nurse's first priority among the given options is to give normal saline solution of 250 mL/hr to restore intravascular volume and improve tissue perfusion.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The stages of shock are commonly described as the initial, compensatory, progressive, and refractory stages. Here is an explanation of each stage and why the patient's assessment findings correspond to the progressive stage:
B. The compensatory stage in (option B) is incorrect because, In the compensatory stage, the body continues to activate compensatory mechanisms to maintain perfusion. This includes increased heart rate, peripheral vasoconstriction, and shunting of blood to vital organs. The patient's assessment findings of decreasing cardiac output, decreased peripheral perfusion, and increased capillary permeability suggest that the body's compensatory mechanisms are no longer sufficient to maintain perfusion adequately. Therefore, the patient has progressed beyond the compensatory stage.
C. The initial stage in (option C) is incorrect because, In the initial stage, there is an initial insult or injury that triggers the shock state. The body's compensatory mechanisms are activated, such as increased heart rate and vasoconstriction, to maintain blood pressure and perfusion. However, the patient's assessment findings indicate that they have progressed beyond the initial stage.
D. The refractory stage in (option D) is incorrect because The refractory stage represents a severe and irreversible state of shock where vital organs fail, and despite interventions, the patient's condition does not improve. The patient's assessment findings do not suggest the refractory stage, as there is still potential for intervention and management.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Norepinephrine is a potent vasoconstrictor and inotropic agent commonly used to increase blood pressure in cases of hypotension or shock. However, if the infusion rate is too high, it can lead to excessive vasoconstriction and potentially compromise organ perfusion.
A heart rate of 58 beats/min suggests bradycardia, which can be an indication of excessive vasoconstriction caused by a high dose or rate of norepinephrine infusion. Excessive vasoconstriction can reduce cardiac output and worsen tissue perfusion.
A. Mean arterial pressure is 55 mm Hg in (option A) is incorrect because A mean arterial pressure of 55 mm Hg may be within an acceptable range for a patient receiving norepinephrine infusion, depending on the patient's baseline blood pressure and clinical condition.
B. Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is elevated in (option B) is incorrect because An elevated SVR indicates increased peripheral vascular resistance and can be a desired effect of norepinephrine infusion to improve blood pressure and perfusion.
C. Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) is low in (option C) which is incorrect because A low PAWP may indicate decreased left ventricular preload, which can be a desired effect of norepinephrine infusion to reduce fluid overload in certain clinical conditions.
It is important for the nurse to carefully monitor the patient's hemodynamic parameters, including blood pressure, heart rate, and organ perfusion when titrating norepinephrine infusion to ensure optimal dosing and minimize potential adverse effects. If concerns arise regarding the infusion rate, the healthcare provider should be promptly notified for further evaluation and adjustment of the treatment plan.
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