The nurse is caring for a patient receiving a continuous norepinephrine (Levophed) IV infusion. Which patient assessment information indicates that the infusion rate may be too high?
Mean arterial pressure is 55 mm Hg.
Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is elevated.
Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) is low.
Heart rate is 58 beats/min.
The Correct Answer is D
Norepinephrine is a potent vasoconstrictor and inotropic agent commonly used to increase blood pressure in cases of hypotension or shock. However, if the infusion rate is too high, it can lead to excessive vasoconstriction and potentially compromise organ perfusion.
A heart rate of 58 beats/min suggests bradycardia, which can be an indication of excessive vasoconstriction caused by a high dose or rate of norepinephrine infusion. Excessive vasoconstriction can reduce cardiac output and worsen tissue perfusion.
A. Mean arterial pressure is 55 mm Hg in (option A) is incorrect because A mean arterial pressure of 55 mm Hg may be within an acceptable range for a patient receiving norepinephrine infusion, depending on the patient's baseline blood pressure and clinical condition.
B. Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is elevated in (option B) is incorrect because An elevated SVR indicates increased peripheral vascular resistance and can be a desired effect of norepinephrine infusion to improve blood pressure and perfusion.
C. Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) is low in (option C) which is incorrect because A low PAWP may indicate decreased left ventricular preload, which can be a desired effect of norepinephrine infusion to reduce fluid overload in certain clinical conditions.
It is important for the nurse to carefully monitor the patient's hemodynamic parameters, including blood pressure, heart rate, and organ perfusion when titrating norepinephrine infusion to ensure optimal dosing and minimize potential adverse effects. If concerns arise regarding the infusion rate, the healthcare provider should be promptly notified for further evaluation and adjustment of the treatment plan.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Urine output is an essential indicator of renal perfusion and overall fluid status. In a patient in shock, maintaining an adequate urine output is a crucial goal of fluid resuscitation. A urine output of 0.5 to 1 mL/kg/hour is generally considered adequate in adults. The given value of 35 ml over the last hour suggests that the patient is producing urine, which indicates that fluid resuscitation is effective in restoring perfusion to the kidneys.
A. The patient's mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 50 mm Hg in (option A) is incorrect because While mean arterial pressure is an important hemodynamic parameter, a single value alone may not provide a comprehensive assessment of the patient's response to fluid resuscitation.
B. The patient's GCS score is 9 in (option B) is incorrect because The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) assesses the level of consciousness and neurological function but does not directly reflect fluid resuscitation effectiveness.
D. The patient's hemoglobin is within normal limits: (option D) is incorrect because Haemoglobin levels are important for assessing oxygen-carrying capacity but do not directly indicate the effectiveness of fluid resuscitation.
Therefore, the nurse can evaluate that fluid resuscitation for a 70 kg patient in shock is effective by observing a urine output of 35 ml over the last hour.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The characteristics described in the monitor strip analysis suggest ventricular tachycardia. The absence of a visible P wave and the wide and distorted QRS complex indicates that the electrical impulse is originating in the ventricles rather than the atria. The ventricular rate of 196 and regular R-R intervals further support the diagnosis of ventricular tachycardia.
B. Atrial fibrillation in (option B) is incorrect because it is characterized by irregularly irregular R-R intervals and the absence of discernible P waves. The QRS complex is typically narrow
C. Atrial tachycardia in (option C) is incorrect because it would have a rapid atrial rate with regular R-R intervals, and P waves may or may not be discernible. The QRS complex is typically narrow.
D. Ventricular fibrillation in (option D) is incorrect because it would present as a chaotic, rapid, and irregular electrical activity with no discernible P waves, QRS complexes, or regular R-R intervals. It is a life-threatening emergency that requires immediate defibrillation.
Therefore, based on the provided information, the nurse would interpret the patient's cardiac rhythm as ventricular tachycardia. However, it is important to note that an accurate interpretation should be made by a qualified healthcare professional, and the patient's clinical context should also be considered.
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