A student is caring for a patient who suffered massive blood loss after trauma. How does the student correlate the blood loss with the patient's mean arterial pressure (MAP)?

It causes vasoconstriction and increased MAP.

Lower blood volume lowers MAP.

It raises cardiac output and MAP.

There is no direct correlation to MAP.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is a measure of the average pressure within the arteries during one cardiac cycle. It represents the perfusion pressure that drives blood flow to organs and tissues. MAP is calculated using the formula:
MAP = Diastolic blood pressure + 1/3 (Systolic blood pressure - Diastolic blood pressure)
Blood loss, particularly in cases of significant hemorrhage, leads to a decrease in blood volume. When blood volume decreases, there is less circulating blood available to generate pressure within the arterial system. This reduction in blood volume results in decreased MAP.
Therefore, in the case of massive blood loss after trauma, the student can correlate it with a lower blood volume, which in turn leads to a lower MAP. The decrease in blood volume reduces the perfusion pressure, compromising organ and tissue perfusion
A. It causes vasoconstriction and increased MAP in (option A) is incorrect because: While vasoconstriction can occur as a compensatory mechanism to maintain blood pressure, it does not necessarily lead to an increased MAP in the context of significant blood loss.
C. It raises cardiac output and MAP in (option C) is incorrect because Blood loss typically leads to a reduction in cardiac output due to decreased blood volume. Therefore, it does not raise cardiac output and MAP.
D. There is no direct correlation to MAP in (option D) is incorrect because: There is indeed a direct correlation between blood loss and MAP. As blood volume decreases, MAP decreases as well.
Therefore, the correct correlation between blood loss and MAP is that lower blood volume lowers MAP.

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Correct Answer is ["18"]

Explanation

Step 1: Convert the patient's weight from pounds to kilograms. 130 pounds ÷ 2.205 (1 pound = 0.453592 kilograms) ≈ 58.97 kilograms

Step 2: Calculate the total dosage of Dobutamine required per hour based on the weight-specific dose. 2.5 mcg/kg/min × 58.97 kg = 147.425 mcg/min

Step 3: Calculate the infusion rate (mL/hr) using the concentration of Dobutamine in the prepared solution. The solution contains 250 mg of Dobutamine in 500 mL, which means there are 250,000 mcg of Dobutamine in 500 mL. To determine the mL/hr, divide the required dosage (147.425 mcg/min) by the amount of Dobutamine in 500 mL (250,000 mcg) and multiply by 500 mL (volume of the solution).

(147.425 mcg/min ÷ 250,000 mcg) × 500 mL ≈ 0.295 mL/min

To get the mL/hr, we convert the rate from minutes to hours (60 minutes = 1 hour):

0.295 mL/min × 60 min/hr ≈ 17.7 mL/hr

Round the answer to the nearest whole number:

Approximately 18 mL/hr of Dobutamine should be administered to the patient.

A. Give a 2000mL normal saline bolus B. Start insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 110 to 150 mg/dL. C. Give acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg rectally. D. Give prescribed Antibiotics E. Start norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep systolic blood pressure >90 mm Hg.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

In septic shock, prompt administration of antibiotics is crucial in order to target the underlying infection and prevent further progression of the septic process. Antibiotics help to eradicate the causative organisms and reduce the bacterial load, which can help improve patient outcomes.
While all the options mentioned are important interventions in the management of septic shock, initiating antibiotic therapy is considered a priority in order to address the underlying infection and prevent sepsis-related complications.
A. Giving a 2000 mL normal saline bolus in (option A) is incorrect because: Fluid resuscitation is important in septic shock to restore intravascular volume, but antibiotic therapy takes precedence as it directly targets the underlying infection.
B. Starting an insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 110 to 150 mg/dL in (option B) is incorrect because Glycemic control is important in septic shock, but it is not the first priority compared to addressing the infection.
C. Giving acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg rectally in (option C) is incorrect because Antipyretic medications can help reduce fever, but they do not address the underlying infection or stabilize the patient's condition.
E. Starting norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep systolic blood pressure >90 mm Hg in (option E) is incorrect because: Vasopressor support may be necessary in septic shock to maintain adequate blood pressure, but initiating antibiotics takes priority in order to address the underlying infection.
Therefore, in a patient with septic shock presenting with the given signs and symptoms, the nurse should first implement the intervention of giving the prescribed antibiotics to target the underlying infection.

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A student is caring for a patient who suffered massive blood loss after trauma. How does the student correlate the blood loss with the patient's mean arterial pressure (MAP)?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is ["18"]

Explanation

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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