The medical-surgical nurse is caring for a 55-year-old female patient after surgery. The patient's respiratory rate has increased from 12 to 22 breaths/min, and the pulse rate has increased from 86 to 110 beats/min since the patient was last assessed 4 hours ago. What action by the nurse is best?

Assess the patient's tissue perfusion further.

Ask if the patient needs pain medication.

Document the findings in the patient's chart.

Increase the rate of the patient's IV infusion.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

The increased respiratory rate and pulse rate can be indicators of physiological changes or potential complications in the patient's condition. These changes may suggest alterations in tissue perfusion or other underlying issues that require further assessment.
Assessing the patient's tissue perfusion includes evaluating additional vital signs, such as blood pressure, oxygen saturation, and capillary refill time. Assessing skin color, temperature, and moisture, as well as peripheral pulses, can also provide important information regarding tissue perfusion.
B. Pain medication (option B) is incorrect because the increased respiratory and pulse rates could also indicate other factors that require assessment before administering pain medication.
C. Documenting the findings in the patient's chart (option C) is incorrect because it should not be the primary action at this point. Assessing the patient's condition and determining appropriate interventions take priority.
D. Increasing the rate of the patient's IV infusion (option D) is incorrect because may not be the most appropriate action without further assessment. The patient's increased respiratory and pulse rates may not necessarily be related to hydration status, and it is important to assess the patient comprehensively before making changes to the IV infusion rate.
Therefore, the best action by the nurse in this situation is to further assess the patient's tissue perfusion to gather more information and determine the appropriate course of action.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

In septic shock, prompt administration of antibiotics is crucial in order to target the underlying infection and prevent further progression of the septic process. Antibiotics help to eradicate the causative organisms and reduce the bacterial load, which can help improve patient outcomes.
While all the options mentioned are important interventions in the management of septic shock, initiating antibiotic therapy is considered a priority in order to address the underlying infection and prevent sepsis-related complications.
A. Giving a 2000 mL normal saline bolus in (option A) is incorrect because: Fluid resuscitation is important in septic shock to restore intravascular volume, but antibiotic therapy takes precedence as it directly targets the underlying infection.
B. Starting an insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 110 to 150 mg/dL in (option B) is incorrect because Glycemic control is important in septic shock, but it is not the first priority compared to addressing the infection.
C. Giving acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg rectally in (option C) is incorrect because Antipyretic medications can help reduce fever, but they do not address the underlying infection or stabilize the patient's condition.
E. Starting norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep systolic blood pressure >90 mm Hg in (option E) is incorrect because: Vasopressor support may be necessary in septic shock to maintain adequate blood pressure, but initiating antibiotics takes priority in order to address the underlying infection.
Therefore, in a patient with septic shock presenting with the given signs and symptoms, the nurse should first implement the intervention of giving the prescribed antibiotics to target the underlying infection.

Correct Answer is ["21"]

Explanation

flow rate for an infusion= (Volume in mL * Drop factor) / Time in minutes.

volume of the infusion bag is 250 mL, the drop factor is 10 gtts/mL, and the time is 2 hours, which is 120 minutes.

(250 mL * 10 gtts/mL) / 120 minutes = 2500 gtts / 120 minutes ≈ 20.83 gtts/minute. Therefore, the nurse should run the infusion at a rate of approximately 21 drops per minute to deliver 1 unit of packed red blood cells over the 2-hour period.

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The medical-surgical nurse is caring for a 55-year-old female patient after surgery. The patient's respiratory rate has increased from 12 to 22 breaths/min, and the pulse rate has increased from 86 to 110 beats/min since the patient was last assessed 4 hours ago. What action by the nurse is best?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The patient weighing 147 pounds with septic shock has a BP of 70/46 mm Hg, pulse 136, respirations 30, temperature 104° F, and blood glucose 391 mg/dL. Which intervention red by the health care provider should the nurse implement first?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Correct Answer is ["21"]

Explanation

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The medical-surgical nurse is caring for a 55-year-old female patient after surgery. The patient's respiratory rate has increased from 12 to 22 breaths/min, and the pulse rate has increased from 86 to 110 beats/min since the patient was last assessed 4 hours ago. What action by the nurse is best?