A 27-year-old male patient who has been involved in a motor vehicle crash is admitted to the emergency department with cool, clammy skin, tachypnoea, tachycardia, and hypotension. All of these orders are written. Which one will the nurse act on first?
Place the patient on a continuous cardiac monitor.
Administer oxygen at 100% per non-rebreather mask.
Insert two 14-gauge IV catheters.
Draw blood to type and crossmatch for transfusions.
The Correct Answer is B
In this scenario, the patient's signs and symptoms suggest a state of shock, which can be caused by various factors, such as hypovolemia, cardiac dysfunction, or systemic vasodilation. The first priority in managing a patient in shock is to ensure adequate oxygenation and tissue perfusion. Administering oxygen at 100% per non-rebreather mask helps improve oxygen delivery to the tissues and supports vital organ function.
A. Placing the patient on a continuous cardiac monitor in (option A) is incorrect because it is an important step to monitor the patient's heart rhythm and identify any abnormalities. However, providing oxygen should take priority to address the potential hypoxemia and tissue hypoperfusion.
C. Inserting two 14-gauge IV catheters in (option C) is incorrect because it is crucial for establishing large-bore access for fluid resuscitation and medication administration. While it is an important step, addressing oxygenation takes precedence.
D. Drawing blood to type and crossmatch for transfusions in (option D) is incorrect because it is an important step in managing a patient in shock who may require blood products. However, ensuring adequate oxygenation through oxygen administration is the immediate priority.
Therefore, the nurse should act first on the order to administer oxygen at 100% per non-rebreather mask to support the patient's oxygenation and tissue perfusion.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Hemorrhagic shock is characterized by severe blood loss, leading to inadequate tissue perfusion and hypovolemia. The primary goal in the initial management of hemorrhagic shock is to restore intravascular volume and improve tissue perfusion. Administering intravenous fluids, such as normal saline solution, is a critical intervention to address hypovolemia and improve blood pressure.
A. Give Plasmanate 1 unit now in (option A) is incorrect because: Plasmanate is a plasma-derived product used to replace coagulation factors. While it may be necessary to address coagulation abnormalities, administering intravenous fluids to restore volume takes priority over specific blood products.
B. Prepare for endotracheal intubation in (option B) is incorrect because Endotracheal intubation may be required in cases of impending respiratory failure or compromised airway, but it should not be the first action in addressing hypovolemic shock.
D. Type and crossmatch for 4 units of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) in (option D) is incorrect because transferring packed red blood cells is an important intervention to address blood loss and improve oxygen-carrying capacity. However, before administering blood products, it is crucial to stabilize the patient's hemodynamics through fluid resuscitation.
Therefore, in a patient with hemorrhagic shock, the nurse's first priority among the given options is to give normal saline solution of 250 mL/hr to restore intravascular volume and improve tissue perfusion.

Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Beck's triad consists of three classic clinical manifestations that are suggestive of cardiac tamponade, which is the compression of the heart by accumulated fluid or blood within the pericardial sac. The three components of Beck's triad include:
A. Muffled heart tones in (option A) are incorrect because Cardiac tamponade can dampen or muffle heart sounds due to the presence of fluid or blood around the heart, which can impair sound transmission.
B. Marked hypotension in (option B) is incorrect because Cardiac tamponade can cause decreased cardiac output, leading to hypotension, which is characterized by low blood pressure.
C. Distended jugular veins in (option C) is incorrect because Elevated venous pressure resulting from impaired filling and elevated right-sided heart pressures can lead to jugular vein distension, which is commonly seen in cardiac tamponade.
However, widening pulse pressure (the difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure) is not typically part of Beck's triad. Widening pulse pressure is associated with her conditions such as aortic regurgitation, hyperthyroidism, or conditions involving increased stroke volume, rather than cardiac tamponade specifically.

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