An arterial catheter is inserted in the right radial artery to monitor a patient's blood pressure. Which information obtained by the nurse indicates that a complication of arterial pressure monitoring may be occurring?
Allen's test is positive.
The mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 90 mm Hg.
The dicrotic notch is visible in the waveform.
The right hand is numb.
The Correct Answer is D
Arterial pressure monitoring involves the insertion of an arterial catheter, typically in the radial artery, to directly measure blood pressure. Complications can arise from this invasive procedure, and one potential complication is inadequate blood flow to the hand, leading to numbness or ischemia.
A. The Allen's test is positive in (option A) is incorrect because The Allen's test is performed before arterial catheter insertion to assess the collateral circulation of the hand. A positive Allen test indicates adequate collateral circulation, which is desirable before performing the procedure. However, it does not directly indicate a complication during or after arterial pressure monitoring.
B. The mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 90 mm Hg in (option B) is incorrect because The mean arterial pressure (MAP) represents the average pressure in the arterial system during one cardiac cycle. While changes in MAP can be significant for patient management, it does not specifically indicate a complication of arterial pressure monitoring.
C. The dicrotic notch visible in the waveform in (option C) is incorrect because The dicrotic notch represents the closure of the aortic valve and is a normal finding in arterial waveforms. Its presence does not indicate a complication.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The absence of palpable pulses suggests a lack of effective cardiac output, and the patient is in cardiac arrest. In this situation, immediate initiation of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is crucial to maintain circulation and provide oxygenation to vital organs.
CPR consists of chest compressions and rescue breaths to circulate oxygenated blood to the brain and other vital organs. It is the primary intervention in cardiac arrest to provide temporary life support until advanced cardiac life support (ACLS) measures, such as defibrillation or medication administration, can be initiated.
A. Administering the prescribed Beta-Blocker in (option A) is incorrect because Administering a beta-blocker is not the initial action in a patient who is in cardiac arrest and requires immediate resuscitation.
B. Prepare for Cardioversion per hospital protocol (option B) is incorrect because Cardioversion, which is the delivery of an electric shock to the heart, may be considered in certain situations like unstable ventricular tachycardia or certain supraventricular tachycardias. However, in the given scenario, the patient is unresponsive and has no pulses, indicating cardiac arrest where CPR takes precedence over cardioversion.
C. Give 100% oxygen per non-rebreather mask in (option C) is incorrect because: While oxygenation is important, it should not delay or replace the initiation of CPR, which is the immediate priority in a patient without palpable pulses.
Therefore, the first action that the nurse should take in this scenario is to start CPR.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
In septic shock, prompt administration of antibiotics is crucial in order to target the underlying infection and prevent further progression of the septic process. Antibiotics help to eradicate the causative organisms and reduce the bacterial load, which can help improve patient outcomes.
While all the options mentioned are important interventions in the management of septic shock, initiating antibiotic therapy is considered a priority in order to address the underlying infection and prevent sepsis-related complications.
A. Giving a 2000 mL normal saline bolus in (option A) is incorrect because: Fluid resuscitation is important in septic shock to restore intravascular volume, but antibiotic therapy takes precedence as it directly targets the underlying infection.
B. Starting an insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 110 to 150 mg/dL in (option B) is incorrect because Glycemic control is important in septic shock, but it is not the first priority compared to addressing the infection.
C. Giving acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg rectally in (option C) is incorrect because Antipyretic medications can help reduce fever, but they do not address the underlying infection or stabilize the patient's condition.
E. Starting norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep systolic blood pressure >90 mm Hg in (option E) is incorrect because: Vasopressor support may be necessary in septic shock to maintain adequate blood pressure, but initiating antibiotics takes priority in order to address the underlying infection.
Therefore, in a patient with septic shock presenting with the given signs and symptoms, the nurse should first implement the intervention of giving the prescribed antibiotics to target the underlying infection.
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