At the beginning of your shift, you start your rounds on your patients. Upon entering this patient’s room, you observe that the cardiac monitor shows sinus tachycardia, is apneic and no pulses are palpable by the nurse.

What is the first action that the nurse should take?

Administer the prescribed Beta-Blocker

Prepare for Cardioversion per hospital protocol.

Give 100% oxygen per non-rebreather mask.

Start CPR

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

The absence of palpable pulses suggests a lack of effective cardiac output, and the patient is in cardiac arrest. In this situation, immediate initiation of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is crucial to maintain circulation and provide oxygenation to vital organs.
CPR consists of chest compressions and rescue breaths to circulate oxygenated blood to the brain and other vital organs. It is the primary intervention in cardiac arrest to provide temporary life support until advanced cardiac life support (ACLS) measures, such as defibrillation or medication administration, can be initiated.
A. Administering the prescribed Beta-Blocker in (option A) is incorrect because Administering a beta-blocker is not the initial action in a patient who is in cardiac arrest and requires immediate resuscitation.
B. Prepare for Cardioversion per hospital protocol (option B) is incorrect because Cardioversion, which is the delivery of an electric shock to the heart, may be considered in certain situations like unstable ventricular tachycardia or certain supraventricular tachycardias. However, in the given scenario, the patient is unresponsive and has no pulses, indicating cardiac arrest where CPR takes precedence over cardioversion.
C. Give 100% oxygen per non-rebreather mask in (option C) is incorrect because: While oxygenation is important, it should not delay or replace the initiation of CPR, which is the immediate priority in a patient without palpable pulses.
Therefore, the first action that the nurse should take in this scenario is to start CPR.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

In septic shock, one of the key goals of management is to restore and maintain adequate intravascular volume. However, in this case, the patient's urine output is low (30 mL/hr for the past 3 hours), suggesting inadequate renal perfusion and potential fluid overload.
Administering additional normal saline at an increased rate (250 mL/hr) without addressing the low urine output could potentially exacerbate fluid overload and further compromise the patient's condition.
A. Administer hydrocortisone (Solu-Cortef) 100 mg IV in (option A) is incorrect because: Hydrocortisone is commonly used in septic shock to help stabilize blood pressure and modulate the inflammatory response.
B. Giving PRN furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV in (option B) is incorrect because Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can be administered as needed to address fluid overload or to increase urine output if there is evidence of volume overload.
D. Titrate norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep systolic BP >90 mm Hg in (option D) is incorrect because: Norepinephrine is a vasopressor commonly used in septic shock to increase systemic vascular resistance and maintain adequate blood pressure.

A. decrease the respiratory rate. B. Leave the ventilator at the current settings. C. increase the tidal volume (VT). D. Increase the F102

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The ABG results show a pH of 7.50, PaCO2 of 29 mmHg, and HCO3 of 23 mEq/L, indicating respiratory alkalosis. In respiratory alkalosis, there is a decrease in PaCO2 (hypocapnia), which can be caused by excessive ventilation.
To address the respiratory alkalosis, the nurse should decrease the respiratory rate. This would help reduce the amount of ventilation provided and allow the patient to retain more carbon dioxide (CO2), thereby increasing the PaCO2 levels and restoring acid-base balance.
B. Leaving the ventilator at the current settings in (option B) is incorrect because it may exacerbate respiratory alkalosis as it would maintain the same level of ventilation.
C. Increasing the tidal volume (VT) in (option C) is incorrect because it would not address the respiratory alkalosis. Tidal volume refers to the volume of air delivered with each breath, while the issue in this case is excessive ventilation leading to hypocapnia.
D. Increasing the FiO2 (fraction of inspired oxygen) in (option D) is incorrect because it is not indicated based on the given ABG results. The oxygenation (PaO2) level is within normal limits (80 mmHg), suggesting adequate oxygenation.
It is important to consult with the healthcare provider or respiratory therapist for further guidance on adjusting the ventilator settings based on the patient's condition and response to therapy.

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At the beginning of your shift, you start your rounds on your patients. Upon entering this patient’s room, you observe that the cardiac monitor shows sinus tachycardia, is apneic and no pulses are palpable by the nurse. What is the first action that the nurse should take?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A 78-kg patient with septic shock has a urine output of 30 mL/hr for the past 3 hours. The pulse rate is 120/minute and the central venous pressure and pulmonary artery wed pressure are low. Which order by the health care provider will the nurse question?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Four hours after mechanical ventilation is initiated for a patient with a suspected drug overdose, the patient's arterial blood gas (ABG) results include a pH of 7.50, Pa0 2 of 80 mm Hg. PaCO2 of 29 mmHg, and HCO3 of 23 mEq/L (23 mmo/L). The nurse will anticipate the need to:

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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At the beginning of your shift, you start your rounds on your patients. Upon entering this patient’s room, you observe that the cardiac monitor shows sinus tachycardia, is apneic and no pulses are palpable by the nurse.

What is the first action that the nurse should take?