To determine the effectiveness of medications that a patient has received to reduce left ventricular afterload, which hemodynamic parameter will the nurse monitor?
Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP)
Systemic vascular resistance (SVR)
Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR)
Central venous pressure (CVP)
The Correct Answer is B
Systemic vascular resistance represents the resistance to blood flow in the systemic circulation. It is an important indicator of afterload, which is the force against which the left ventricle must pump to eject blood into the systemic circulation. By monitoring the changes in SVR, the nurse can assess the impact of medications aimed at reducing left ventricular afterload.
A. Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) in (option A) is incorrect because: PAWP is a measure of left ventricular preload and reflects the pressure within the left atrium and left ventricle at end-diastole. It is not specifically related to afterload reduction.
C. Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) in (option C) is incorrect because: PVR represents the resistance to blood flow in the pulmonary circulation. It is not directly related to left ventricular afterload.
D. Central venous pressure (CVP) in (option D) is incorrect because: CVP reflects the pressure in the right atrium and is an indicator of right-sided cardiac function. It is not specifically related to left ventricular afterload reduction.
Therefore, to assess the effectiveness of medications in reducing left ventricular afterload, the nurse should monitor the systemic vascular resistance (SVR).
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Septic shock is characterized by inadequate tissue perfusion and hypotension, which can lead to organ dysfunction and failure. The administration of intravenous fluids, such as a normal saline bolus, is the initial priority in the management of septic shock to restore intravascular volume and improve perfusion.
A. Draw an arterial blood gas (ABG) in (option A) is incorrect because: ABG may be ordered to assess the patient's acid-base status and oxygenation, but addressing hypotension and restoring perfusion through fluid administration takes priority.
B. Start insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 150 mg/dl or lower in (option B) is incorrect because: Hyperglycaemia is commonly observed in critically ill patients, including those with septic shock. While controlling blood glucose is important, it is not the immediate priority compared to addressing hypotension and restoring intravascular volume.
D. Titrate norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep mean arterial pressure (MAP) greater than 65 mm Hg in (option D) is incorrect because: Norepinephrine is a vasopressor medication used to increase blood pressure and perfusion in septic shock. While it may be necessary for the management of septic shock, fluid resuscitation should be initiated first to optimize intravascular volume before starting vasopressors.
Therefore, the first order that the nurse should accomplish in this scenario is to give a normal saline bolus IV of 30 mL/kg to address the hypotension and restore intravascular volume.
Correct Answer is ["21"]
Explanation
flow rate for an infusion= (Volume in mL * Drop factor) / Time in minutes.
volume of the infusion bag is 250 mL, the drop factor is 10 gtts/mL, and the time is 2 hours, which is 120 minutes.
(250 mL * 10 gtts/mL) / 120 minutes = 2500 gtts / 120 minutes ≈ 20.83 gtts/minute. Therefore, the nurse should run the infusion at a rate of approximately 21 drops per minute to deliver 1 unit of packed red blood cells over the 2-hour period.
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