The emergency department nurse provides care for a 50-year-old male patient with septic shock. The nurse recalls that the renin- angiotensin system is activated during which stage of shock?
Initial stage
Progressive stage
Refractory stage
Compensatory stage
The Correct Answer is D
In the compensatory stage of shock, the body initiates various mechanisms to maintain perfusion to vital organs and restore homeostasis. Activation of the renin-angiotensin system is one of the compensatory responses. The decreased blood flow and oxygen delivery to the kidneys stimulate the release of renin from the kidneys. Renin acts on angiotensinogen, converting it into angiotensin I, which is further converted to angiotensin II by the action of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE). Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor and also stimulates the release of aldosterone, leading to sodium and water retention. These mechanisms aim to increase blood pressure and cardiac output and restore fluid balance.
A. The initial stage of shock in (option A) is incorrect because it is characterized by inadequate tissue perfusion and the activation of various compensatory mechanisms, including the release of stress hormones. However, the renin-angiotensin system is not specifically mentioned as activated in this stage.
B. The progressive stage of shock in (option B) is incorrect because it occurs when compensatory mechanisms fail to maintain adequate perfusion, leading to worsening hypoperfusion and organ dysfunction. The renin-angiotensin system continues to be activated during this stage, but it is primarily associated with the compensatory stage.
C. The refractory stage of shock in (option C) is incorrect because it is the stage of severe and prolonged hypoperfusion, where organ failure becomes irreversible. The renin-angiotensin system may still be activated, but it is not the primary focus of this stage.
Therefore, the activation of the renin-angiotensin system occurs during the compensatory stage of shock.

Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Central venous pressure (CVP) is a measurement of the pressure in the central veins, which reflects the blood volume and right-sided cardiac function. High CVP readings may indicate fluid overload or impaired cardiac function, and intervention is necessary to address the underlying cause.
Administering IV diuretic medications can help reduce fluid volume by increasing urine output and promoting fluid elimination. By removing excess fluid, the diuretic medications can help lower the CVP and alleviate the high pressures.
The other options mentioned are not the anticipated actions for addressing high CVP:
A. Increasing the IV fluid infusion rate in (option A) is incorrect because: If the CVP is already indicating high pressures, increasing the IV fluid infusion rate would further contribute to fluid overload and exacerbate the problem. This action would not be appropriate for high CVP readings.
C. Elevating the head of the patient's bed to 45 degrees in (option C) is incorrect because Positioning the patient with the head of the bed elevated is commonly done to prevent complications such as aspiration or improve respiratory function. While it may have other benefits, it does not directly address the high CVP.
D. Documenting the CVP and continuing to monitor in (option D) is incorrect because Documenting the CVP and continuing to monitor is important for ongoing assessment and evaluation. However, in the presence of high CVP readings, intervention is necessary to address the underlying issue rather than solely documenting and monitoring.
Therefore, when a patient's CVP monitor indicates high pressures following surgery, the nurse would anticipate administering IV diuretic medications to help reduce fluid volume and lower the CVP.

Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The nurse should listen over both lung fields to ensure that air entry is present bilaterally, indicating that the tube is correctly positioned in the trachea. This comes after observing chest movements.
B. Using an end-tidal CO2 monitor to check for placement in the trachea in (option B) is incorrect because End-tidal CO2 monitoring can provide confirmation of correct tube placement in the trachea by detecting exhaled CO2 levels. However, it requires additional equipment and setup, which may not be readily available at the bedside or immediately accessible.
C. Observing the chest for symmetrical movement with ventilation is the initial action after placing an endotracheal tube.
D. Obtaining a portable chest radiograph to check tube placement (option D) is incorrect because Chest radiographs are commonly used to confirm endotracheal tube placement, especially for long-term confirmation or if there are concerns about placement. However, obtaining a portable chest radiograph may involve delays and is not the initial action to be taken for immediate verification.
Therefore, the best initial action by the nurse to verify the correct placement of an endotracheal tube (ET) after insertion is to auscultate for the presence of bilateral breath sounds.

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
