The labor of a pregnant teenager with preeclampsia is going to be induced. Before initiating the Oxytocin infusion, the nurse reviews the woman's latest laboratory test findings, which reveal a platelet count of 80,000, an elevated aspartate transaminase (AST) level (250 U/L), and falling hemoglobin from 14 to 11 g/dl. The nurse notifies the physician because the laboratory results are indicative of
Select one:
Idiopathic thrombocytopenia.
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
HELLP syndrome.
Eclampsia.
Eclampsia.
The Correct Answer is C
a. Idiopathic thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count without an identifiable cause, which is not the case in this scenario.
b. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a condition characterized by widespread activation of the clotting system, which is not the case in this scenario.
c. HELLP syndrome is a serious complication of preeclampsia characterized by hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelet count.
d. Eclampsia is a severe complication of preeclampsia characterized by seizures, which is not the case in this scenario.

Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
a. This is a common symptom in early pregnancy and is not specific to a hydatidiform mole.
b. This finding suggests that the uterus is larger than expected for the gestational age and may indicate a hydatidiform mole.
c. This is a normal finding in pregnancy and is not specific to a hydatidiform mole.
d. This is a normal blood pressure and is not specific to a hydatidiform mole.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
a. This is not the correct choice because the woman has signs of magnesium toxicity, such as low urine output, high blood pressure, and increased DTR. Continuing the infusion could worsen her condition and put her and the fetus at risk.
b. This is the correct choice because the woman needs to be treated for magnesium toxicity, which is a serious complication of preeclampsia. Stopping the infusion will prevent further accumulation of magnesium in her body and allow her to excrete the excess.
c. This is not the correct choice because it will delay the treatment of magnesium toxicity, which is a medical emergency. The woman's vital signs and symptoms are enough to indicate that she has a high level of magnesium and needs immediate intervention.
d. This is not the correct choice because it will not address the underlying cause of magnesium toxicity, which is the infusion. Oxygen may help with some symptoms, such as respiratory depression, but it will not reverse the effects of magnesium on the nervous system and blood vessels.
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