A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for a cesarean birth based on the fetal lungs having reached maturity. Which of the following indicates that the fetal lungs are mature?
Biophysical profile score of 8
Phosphatidylglycerol (PG) absent
Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio of 2:1
Nonstress test is reactive
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: A biophysical profile score of 8 is a good indicator of fetal well-being, but it does not measure the fetal lung maturity. It consists of five parameters: fetal breathing movements, fetal movements, fetal tone, amniotic fluid volume, and nonstress test.
Choice B reason: Phosphatidylglycerol (PG) is a phospholipid that is present in the fetal lung surfactant. Its presence indicates that the fetal lungs are mature, while its absence does not rule out the possibility of maturity.
Choice C reason: Lecithin and sphingomyelin are two phospholipids that are found in the fetal lung surfactant. The L/S ratio is the ratio of lecithin to sphingomyelin in the amniotic fluid. A ratio of 2:1 or higher indicates that the fetal lungs are mature and can produce enough surfactant to prevent respiratory distress syndrome.
Choice D reason: A nonstress test is a test that measures the fetal heart rate and its response to fetal movements. A reactive test means that the fetal heart rate increases by at least 15 beats per minute for at least 15 seconds twice in a 20-minute period. This indicates that the fetus is healthy and well-oxygenated, but it does not reflect the fetal lung maturity.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Ceftriaxone is incorrect because it is not the drug of choice for syphilis treatment. It is a cephalosporin antibiotic that can be used for other bacterial infections, such as gonorrhea, meningitis, or pneumonia.
Choice B reason: Penicillin G is correct because it is the drug of choice for syphilis treatment. It is a penicillin antibiotic that can effectively cure syphilis at any stage, except for neurosyphilis, which requires intravenous administration.
Choice C reason: Acyclovir is incorrect because it is not the drug of choice for syphilis treatment. It is an antiviral medication that can be used for viral infections, such as herpes simplex virus, varicella-zoster virus, or cytomegalovirus.
Choice D reason: Tetracycline is incorrect because it is not the drug of choice for syphilis treatment. It is a tetracycline antibiotic that can be used for other bacterial infections, such as chlamydia, acne, or Lyme disease.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Congenital anomalies of the central nervous system are not a common complication of GDM, as they usually occur in the first trimester, before GDM develops. However, GDM can increase the risk of other congenital anomalies, such as cardiac defects or neural tube defects.
Choice B reason: Preterm birth is a possible complication of GDM, as it can be caused by maternal hypertension, preeclampsia, or placental abruption. However, it is not the most likely complication, as GDM can also delay the onset of labor and prolong the pregnancy.
Choice C reason: Low birth weight is not a typical complication of GDM, as it is more associated with intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), which is caused by placental insufficiency. GDM can cause the opposite problem, which is excessive fetal growth.
Choice D reason: Macrosomia is the most common complication of GDM, as it is defined as a birth weight of more than 4,000 grams (8.8 pounds). It is caused by the excess glucose crossing the placenta and stimulating the fetal insulin production, which leads to increased fat deposition and organ enlargement. Macrosomia can increase the risk of birth trauma, shoulder dystocia, and neonatal hypoglycemia.
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