The drug of choice for syphilis treatment is
Ceftriaxone
Penicillin G
Acyclovir
Tetracycline
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Ceftriaxone is incorrect because it is not the drug of choice for syphilis treatment. It is a cephalosporin antibiotic that can be used for other bacterial infections, such as gonorrhea, meningitis, or pneumonia.
Choice B reason: Penicillin G is correct because it is the drug of choice for syphilis treatment. It is a penicillin antibiotic that can effectively cure syphilis at any stage, except for neurosyphilis, which requires intravenous administration.
Choice C reason: Acyclovir is incorrect because it is not the drug of choice for syphilis treatment. It is an antiviral medication that can be used for viral infections, such as herpes simplex virus, varicella-zoster virus, or cytomegalovirus.
Choice D reason: Tetracycline is incorrect because it is not the drug of choice for syphilis treatment. It is a tetracycline antibiotic that can be used for other bacterial infections, such as chlamydia, acne, or Lyme disease.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is incorrect because it is not characterized by recurrent episodes. It is a chronic infection that progressively damages the immune system and can lead to acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS).
Choice B reason: Herpes simplex virus (HSV) 2 is correct because it is characterized by recurrent episodes. It is a viral infection that causes genital herpes, which is marked by painful blisters and sores in the genital area. The virus remains dormant in the nerve cells and can reactivate periodically, causing outbreaks.
Choice C reason: Human papillomavirus (HPV) is incorrect because it is not characterized by recurrent episodes. It is a viral infection that causes genital warts and cervical cancer. The virus can persist in the body for a long time, but it does not cause repeated symptoms.
Choice D reason: Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is incorrect because it is not characterized by recurrent episodes. It is a viral infection that usually causes mild or no symptoms in healthy people, but can be serious in people with weakened immune systems or unborn babies. The virus can remain latent in the body, but it does not cause flare-ups.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is too short of a time frame for seroconversion to occur. Seroconversion is the process of developing antibodies to HIV, which can be detected by a blood test. It usually takes several weeks for the immune system to produce enough antibodies to be measurable.
Choice B reason: This is the typical time frame for seroconversion to occur. Most people will develop antibodies to HIV within 6 to 12 weeks after exposure. However, some people may take longer, up to 6 months or more.
Choice C reason: This is the upper limit of the time frame for seroconversion to occur. Some people may have a delayed antibody response to HIV, especially if they have a weakened immune system or take antiretroviral drugs. Therefore, it is recommended to repeat the HIV test after 6 months of exposure to confirm the diagnosis.
Choice D reason: This is an arbitrary time frame that does not reflect the average or the range of seroconversion. It is neither too short nor too long, but it is not accurate.
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