The drug of choice for syphilis treatment is
Ceftriaxone
Penicillin G
Acyclovir
Tetracycline
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Ceftriaxone is incorrect because it is not the drug of choice for syphilis treatment. It is a cephalosporin antibiotic that can be used for other bacterial infections, such as gonorrhea, meningitis, or pneumonia.
Choice B reason: Penicillin G is correct because it is the drug of choice for syphilis treatment. It is a penicillin antibiotic that can effectively cure syphilis at any stage, except for neurosyphilis, which requires intravenous administration.
Choice C reason: Acyclovir is incorrect because it is not the drug of choice for syphilis treatment. It is an antiviral medication that can be used for viral infections, such as herpes simplex virus, varicella-zoster virus, or cytomegalovirus.
Choice D reason: Tetracycline is incorrect because it is not the drug of choice for syphilis treatment. It is a tetracycline antibiotic that can be used for other bacterial infections, such as chlamydia, acne, or Lyme disease.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: A biophysical profile score of 8 is a good indicator of fetal well-being, but it does not measure the fetal lung maturity. It consists of five parameters: fetal breathing movements, fetal movements, fetal tone, amniotic fluid volume, and nonstress test.
Choice B reason: Phosphatidylglycerol (PG) is a phospholipid that is present in the fetal lung surfactant. Its presence indicates that the fetal lungs are mature, while its absence does not rule out the possibility of maturity.
Choice C reason: Lecithin and sphingomyelin are two phospholipids that are found in the fetal lung surfactant. The L/S ratio is the ratio of lecithin to sphingomyelin in the amniotic fluid. A ratio of 2:1 or higher indicates that the fetal lungs are mature and can produce enough surfactant to prevent respiratory distress syndrome.
Choice D reason: A nonstress test is a test that measures the fetal heart rate and its response to fetal movements. A reactive test means that the fetal heart rate increases by at least 15 beats per minute for at least 15 seconds twice in a 20-minute period. This indicates that the fetus is healthy and well-oxygenated, but it does not reflect the fetal lung maturity.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A: Decreased production of erythrocytes
This is not the primary cause of iron deficiency anemia during pregnancy. While erythrocyte production may be affected in certain conditions, it is not directly linked to iron deficiency anemia in pregnancy¹.
Choice B: Inadequate intake of iron
This is the correct answer. During pregnancy, the body needs more iron to make hemoglobin for the increased volume of blood. If the intake of iron is not sufficient, it could lead to iron deficiency anemia¹.
Choice C: Dilution of hemoglobin concentration
While it's true that the blood volume increases during pregnancy, leading to a relative dilution of hemoglobin, this is not the primary cause of iron deficiency anemia. The main issue is the lack of sufficient iron intake¹.
Choice D: The fetus establishing iron stores
While the fetus does require iron, which it gets from the mother, this is not the primary cause of iron deficiency anemia during pregnancy. The main issue is still the mother's inadequate intake of iron¹.
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