A patient asks the healthcare provider about the benefits of receiving the human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine. Which statement is the most appropriate response by the healthcare provider?
The HPV vaccine can help prevent cervical cancer.
The HPV vaccine will protect you from all types of the virus.
You will need to have a booster vaccination each year.
You will no longer need to get a routine cervical exam.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: The HPV vaccine can help prevent cervical cancer, as it protects against the most common types of HPV that cause cervical cancer. HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that can infect the cervix and cause abnormal cell changes that may lead to cancer. The HPV vaccine is recommended for both males and females between the ages of 9 and 26.
Choice B reason: The HPV vaccine will not protect you from all types of the virus, as there are more than 100 types of HPV, and the vaccine only covers 9 of them. However, these 9 types are responsible for about 90% of cervical cancers and 80% of anal cancers. The vaccine also does not protect against other sexually transmitted infections, such as chlamydia, gonorrhea, or HIV.
Choice C reason: You will not need to have a booster vaccination each year, as the HPV vaccine is given in a series of 2 or 3 doses, depending on the age of the person. The vaccine provides long-lasting protection, and no additional doses are needed after completing the series.
Choice D reason: You will still need to get a routine cervical exam, as the HPV vaccine does not eliminate the risk of cervical cancer completely. The vaccine does not protect against all types of HPV, and some people may already be infected with HPV before getting the vaccine. Therefore, regular screening with a Pap test and/or an HPV test is still recommended for women aged 21 to 65 to detect any abnormal cells or HPV infection in the cervix.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Taking the medication between meals will help you avoid becoming constipated is incorrect because it is not the reason why the provider instructed that she take the ferrous sulfate between meals. It is a possible benefit of taking the medication between meals, but it is not the main purpose. Iron supplements can cause constipation, but this can be prevented by drinking plenty of fluids, eating high-fiber foods, and exercising regularly.
Choice B reason: The medication can cause nausea if taken with food is incorrect because it is not the reason why the provider instructed that she take the ferrous sulfate between meals. It is a possible side effect of taking the medication with or without food, but it is not the main reason. Iron supplements can cause nausea, but this can be reduced by taking the medication with a small amount of food, such as crackers, or by taking an antiemetic medication.
Choice C reason: Taking the medication between meals will help you absorb the medication more efficiently is correct because it is the reason why the provider instructed that she take the ferrous sulfate between meals. It is the main purpose of taking the medication between meals, as iron absorption is enhanced when the stomach is empty and the pH is low. Iron supplements can interact with food components, such as calcium, phytates, and tannins, and reduce the amount of iron that is absorbed by the body.
Choice D reason: Taking the medication with food increases the risk of esophagitis is incorrect because it is not the reason why the provider instructed that she take the ferrous sulfate between meals. It is a possible complication of taking the medication without enough water, but it is not the main reason. Iron supplements can cause esophagitis, which is inflammation of the esophagus, if they are not swallowed properly or if they get stuck in the throat. This can be prevented by taking the medication with a full glass of water, sitting upright, and not lying down for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is a correct statement, as the NST measures the fetal heart rate and its response to fetal movement. The nurse will place two belts around the client's abdomen, one to monitor the heart rate and one to monitor the contractions.
Choice B reason: This is a correct statement, as the NST usually takes 20 to 30 minutes to complete. The nurse will look for at least two accelerations of the fetal heart rate within a 20-minute period.
Choice C reason: This is a correct statement, as the NST is more likely to be reactive (normal) when the baby is active. The client may be asked to eat or drink something before the test to stimulate the baby's movement.
Choice D reason: This is an incorrect statement, as the client does not have to lie on her back during the test. Lying on the back can compress the inferior vena cava and reduce the blood flow to the placenta. The client can lie on her side or sit in a reclining chair during the test.
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