A woman at 10 weeks of gestation who is seen in the prenatal clinic with presumptive signs and symptoms of pregnancy likely will have?

Chadwick's sign.

Hegar's sign.

a positive pregnancy test.

amenorrhea.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

The correct answer is d. Amenorrhea.

Choice A: Chadwick’s sign is a non-specific, early sign of pregnancy that is typically characterized by a bluish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and vulva. The Chadwick sign can typically be observed as early as six to eight weeks after conception, and commonly disappears shortly after birth. However, it’s not a definitive indication of pregnancy, and the absence of it on physical exam does not exclude a potential pregnancy.

Choice B: Hegar’s sign is a non-specific indication of pregnancy that is characterized by the compressibility and softening of the cervical isthmus (i.e., the portion of the cervix between the uterus and the vaginal portion of the cervix). It typically presents between the fourth and sixth week of pregnancy and may be present until the 12th week of pregnancy. However, the Hegar sign is not a definitive indication of pregnancy, and the absence of it does not exclude a potential pregnancy.

Choice C: A positive pregnancy test By 10 weeks, a home pregnancy test would almost certainly show a positive result if the woman is pregnant. This is because the hormone human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), which is produced by the placenta after implantation of the embryo into the uterine wall, would be present in high enough levels to be detected by the test. However, a positive pregnancy test is not a presumptive sign of pregnancy, but rather a probable one.

Choice D: Amenorrhea, or the absence of menstrual periods, is often considered the most presumptive sign of pregnancy. This is because it’s one of the first noticeable signs of pregnancy for many women. By 10 weeks of gestation, the woman would likely have missed two menstrual periods if she usually has regular cycles. However, while amenorrhea is a common early sign of pregnancy, it can also be caused by various other conditions or factors such as stress, significant weight loss or gain, or certain medical conditions. Therefore, a missed period should be followed up with a pregnancy test to confirm pregnancy.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: Maternal placenta previa is not a common complication of gestational diabetes mellitus. Placenta previa is a condition in which the placenta covers the cervix, which can cause bleeding and preterm labor. The risk factors for placenta previa include previous cesarean delivery, multiple pregnancy, advanced maternal age, and smoking.

Choice B reason: Maternal hyperemesis and neonatal low birth weight are not directly related to gestational diabetes mellitus. Hyperemesis is a severe form of nausea and vomiting during pregnancy that can cause dehydration and weight loss. The causes of hyperemesis are not well understood, but it may be influenced by hormonal changes, genetic factors, and psychological factors². Neonatal low birth weight is defined as a birth weight of less than 2,500 grams, which can be caused by many factors, such as prematurity, intrauterine growth restriction, maternal infection, and maternal malnutrition.

Choice C reason: Maternal premature rupture of membranes and neonatal sepsis are not specific to gestational diabetes mellitus. Premature rupture of membranes is a condition in which the amniotic sac breaks before labor begins, which can increase the risk of infection and preterm delivery. The causes of premature rupture of membranes are not clear, but some possible factors include infection, inflammation, stress, and trauma. Neonatal sepsis is a life-threatening infection in newborns, which can be caused by bacteria, viruses, or fungi. The risk factors for neonatal sepsis include prematurity, low birth weight, maternal infection, and invasive procedures⁵.

Choice D reason: Maternal preeclampsia and fetal macrosomia are the most common and serious complications of gestational diabetes mellitus. Preeclampsia is a condition characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine, which can lead to organ damage, seizures, and death. The exact cause of preeclampsia is unknown, but it may be related to abnormal placental development, immune system dysfunction, and genetic factors⁶. Fetal macrosomia is a condition in which the baby is larger than normal, usually weighing more than 4,000 grams at birth. This can cause difficulties during labor and delivery, such as shoulder dystocia, birth trauma, and cesarean section. The main cause of fetal macrosomia is excessive maternal glucose, which stimulates fetal insulin production and growth.

A. has no known contraindications. B. is slightly more expensive. C. has fewer false-positive results. D. is more sensitive in detecting fetal compromise.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: The NST has no known contraindications, as it is a non-invasive and safe test that does not stimulate uterine contractions or cause fetal distress. It is the most widely used method of antepartum fetal surveillance.

Choice B reason: The NST is not slightly more expensive than the CST, as it requires less time and equipment. The NST usually takes 20 to 40 minutes, while the CST may take up to 2 hours. The NST only needs a fetal monitor, while the CST also needs an intravenous line and oxytocin infusion.

Choice C reason: The NST does not have fewer false-positive results than the CST, as it has a higher rate of nonreactive results that may indicate fetal compromise when there is none. A nonreactive NST is one that does not show at least two accelerations of the fetal heart rate of 15 beats per minute or more lasting 15 seconds or more in a 20-minute period.

Choice D reason: The NST is not more sensitive in detecting fetal compromise than the CST, as it has a lower predictive value for fetal well-being. A reactive NST is one that shows at least two accelerations of the fetal heart rate of 15 beats per minute or more lasting 15 seconds or more in a 20-minute period. However, a reactive NST does not rule out the possibility of fetal hypoxia or acidosis.

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A woman at 10 weeks of gestation who is seen in the prenatal clinic with presumptive signs and symptoms of pregnancy likely will have?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

What are the maternal and neonatal risks associated with gestational diabetes mellitus?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Compared with contraction stress test (CST), nonstress test (NST) for antepartum fetal assessment:

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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