A woman at 10 weeks of gestation who is seen in the prenatal clinic with presumptive signs and symptoms of pregnancy likely will have?

Chadwick's sign.

Hegar's sign.

a positive pregnancy test.

amenorrhea.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

The correct answer is d. Amenorrhea.

Choice A: Chadwick’s sign is a non-specific, early sign of pregnancy that is typically characterized by a bluish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and vulva. The Chadwick sign can typically be observed as early as six to eight weeks after conception, and commonly disappears shortly after birth. However, it’s not a definitive indication of pregnancy, and the absence of it on physical exam does not exclude a potential pregnancy.

Choice B: Hegar’s sign is a non-specific indication of pregnancy that is characterized by the compressibility and softening of the cervical isthmus (i.e., the portion of the cervix between the uterus and the vaginal portion of the cervix). It typically presents between the fourth and sixth week of pregnancy and may be present until the 12th week of pregnancy. However, the Hegar sign is not a definitive indication of pregnancy, and the absence of it does not exclude a potential pregnancy.

Choice C: A positive pregnancy test By 10 weeks, a home pregnancy test would almost certainly show a positive result if the woman is pregnant. This is because the hormone human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), which is produced by the placenta after implantation of the embryo into the uterine wall, would be present in high enough levels to be detected by the test. However, a positive pregnancy test is not a presumptive sign of pregnancy, but rather a probable one.

Choice D: Amenorrhea, or the absence of menstrual periods, is often considered the most presumptive sign of pregnancy. This is because it’s one of the first noticeable signs of pregnancy for many women. By 10 weeks of gestation, the woman would likely have missed two menstrual periods if she usually has regular cycles. However, while amenorrhea is a common early sign of pregnancy, it can also be caused by various other conditions or factors such as stress, significant weight loss or gain, or certain medical conditions. Therefore, a missed period should be followed up with a pregnancy test to confirm pregnancy.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: This is incorrect because a donor embryo is not used in IVF-ET. A donor embryo is an embryo that was created from another couple's gametes and donated to an infertile couple. IVF-ET uses the couple's own gametes to create an embryo.

Choice B reason: This is incorrect because it is dismissive and unprofessional. The nurse should respect the husband's curiosity and provide accurate and clear information about the procedure. The nurse should also address any concerns or questions that the couple may have.

Choice C reason: This is correct because it is a concise and accurate description of the IVF-ET procedure. The nurse explains the main steps and the purpose of the procedure in simple terms.

Choice D reason: This is incorrect because donor sperm is not used in IVF-ET. Donor sperm is sperm that was obtained from another man and donated to an infertile couple. IVF-ET uses the husband's own sperm to fertilize the wife's eggs.

A. Anxiety due to hospitalization. B. Effects of magnesium sulfate. C. Worsening disease and impending convulsion. D. Gastrointestinal upset. E. Gastrointestinal upset.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Anxiety due to hospitalization is not a likely cause of the signs reported by the patient. Anxiety can cause some symptoms, such as headache, palpitations, or sweating, but it does not cause visual changes or epigastric pain. Anxiety is also not a common complication of pregnancy-induced hypertension, which is a condition characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine.

Choice B reason: Effects of magnesium sulfate are not a likely cause of the signs reported by the patient. Magnesium sulfate is a medication used to prevent seizures and lower blood pressure in patients with pregnancy-induced hypertension. It can cause some side effects, such as flushing, nausea, or drowsiness, but it does not cause headache, visual changes, or epigastric pain. In fact, magnesium sulfate can help relieve these symptoms by reducing the cerebral edema and vasospasm caused by pregnancy-induced hypertension.

Choice C reason: Worsening disease and impending convulsion are the most likely cause of the signs reported by the patient. These signs indicate that the patient is developing severe preeclampsia or eclampsia, which are life-threatening complications of pregnancy-induced hypertension. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure, protein in the urine, and signs of organ damage, such as headache, visual changes, epigastric pain, or decreased urine output. Eclampsia is the occurrence of seizures in a patient with preeclampsia. These conditions can lead to stroke, bleeding, placental abruption, or fetal distress, and require immediate medical attention.

Choice D reason: Gastrointestinal upset is not a likely cause of the signs reported by the patient. Gastrointestinal upset can cause some symptoms, such as nausea, vomiting, or abdominal pain, but it does not cause headache, visual changes, or epigastric pain. Gastrointestinal upset is also not a common complication of pregnancy-induced hypertension, which is a condition that affects the blood vessels and organs, not the digestive system.

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A woman at 10 weeks of gestation who is seen in the prenatal clinic with presumptive signs and symptoms of pregnancy likely will have?

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A patient with pregnancy-induced hypertension is admitted complaining of pounding headache, visual changes, and epigastric pain. Nursing care is based on the knowledge that these signs are an indication of:

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The most prevalent clinical manifestation of abruptio placentae (as opposed to placenta previa) is:

The most common cause of decreased variability in the fetal heart rate (FHR) that lasts 30 minutes or less is:

When providing care to a young single woman just diagnosed with acute pelvic inflammatory disease, the nurse should:

A woman diagnosed with marginal placenta previa gave birth vaginally 15 minutes ago. At the present time she is at the greatest risk for:

What should the nurse tell a pregnant woman at 10 weeks of gestation who jogs 3 or 4 times per week and is concerned about the effect of exercise on the fetus?

Which pregnant woman should restrict her weight gain during pregnancy?

A woman arrives at the clinic for her annual examination. She tells the nurse that she thinks she has a vaginal infection and has been using an over-the-counter cream for the past 2 days to treat it. The nurse's initial response should be to:

The nurse is counseling a woman who wants to become pregnant. The woman tells the nurse that she has a 28-day menstrual cycle and the first day of her menstrual period was January 8. The nurse correctly calculates that the woman's next fertile period is?