Care management of a woman diagnosed with acute pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) most likely would include:

oral antiviral therapy.

antibiotics only until symptoms subside.

frequent pelvic examination to monitor the progress of healing.

bed rest in a semi-Fowler position.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason: This is incorrect because oral antiviral therapy is not effective for PID, which is caused by bacterial infection. Antiviral therapy is used for viral infections, such as herpes or HIV.

Choice B reason: This is incorrect because antibiotics only until symptoms subside is not sufficient for PID, which can cause serious complications, such as infertility, ectopic pregnancy, or chronic pelvic pain. Antibiotics should be continued for the full course of treatment, usually 14 days, to ensure complete eradication of the infection.

Choice C reason: This is incorrect because frequent pelvic examination to monitor the progress of healing is not recommended for PID, which can cause inflammation and irritation of the pelvic organs. Pelvic examination should be avoided or minimized to prevent further trauma or spread of the infection.

Choice D reason: This is correct because bed rest in a semi-Fowler position is beneficial for PID, which can cause fluid accumulation and pressure in the pelvic cavity. Bed rest helps to reduce inflammation and pain, while semi-Fowler position helps to drain the fluid and prevent abscess formation.

Nursing Test Bank

Quiz #1: RN Exams Pharmacology Exams Quiz #2: RN Exams Medical-Surgical Exams Quiz #3: RN Exams Fundamentals Exams Quiz #4: RN Exams Maternal-Newborn Exams Quiz #5: RN Exams Anatomy and Physiology Exams Quiz #6: RN Exams Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Quiz #7: RN Exams Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Quiz #8: RN Exams Community Health Exams Quiz #9: RN Exams Promoting Health across the lifespan Exams Quiz #10: RN Exams Multidimensional care Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Quiz #1: Naxlex RN Comprehensive online practice 2019 B with NGN Quiz #2: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quiz #3: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam A Quiz #4: Naxlex HESI Exit LPN Exam Quiz #5: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor PN 2020 Quiz #6: Naxlex VATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Quiz #8: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 - Exam 1 Quiz #10: Naxlex HESI PN Exit exam Quiz #11: Naxlex HESI PN EXIT Exam 2

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: Maternal placenta previa is not a common complication of gestational diabetes mellitus. Placenta previa is a condition in which the placenta covers the cervix, which can cause bleeding and preterm labor. The risk factors for placenta previa include previous cesarean delivery, multiple pregnancy, advanced maternal age, and smoking.

Choice B reason: Maternal hyperemesis and neonatal low birth weight are not directly related to gestational diabetes mellitus. Hyperemesis is a severe form of nausea and vomiting during pregnancy that can cause dehydration and weight loss. The causes of hyperemesis are not well understood, but it may be influenced by hormonal changes, genetic factors, and psychological factors². Neonatal low birth weight is defined as a birth weight of less than 2,500 grams, which can be caused by many factors, such as prematurity, intrauterine growth restriction, maternal infection, and maternal malnutrition.

Choice C reason: Maternal premature rupture of membranes and neonatal sepsis are not specific to gestational diabetes mellitus. Premature rupture of membranes is a condition in which the amniotic sac breaks before labor begins, which can increase the risk of infection and preterm delivery. The causes of premature rupture of membranes are not clear, but some possible factors include infection, inflammation, stress, and trauma. Neonatal sepsis is a life-threatening infection in newborns, which can be caused by bacteria, viruses, or fungi. The risk factors for neonatal sepsis include prematurity, low birth weight, maternal infection, and invasive procedures⁵.

Choice D reason: Maternal preeclampsia and fetal macrosomia are the most common and serious complications of gestational diabetes mellitus. Preeclampsia is a condition characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine, which can lead to organ damage, seizures, and death. The exact cause of preeclampsia is unknown, but it may be related to abnormal placental development, immune system dysfunction, and genetic factors⁶. Fetal macrosomia is a condition in which the baby is larger than normal, usually weighing more than 4,000 grams at birth. This can cause difficulties during labor and delivery, such as shoulder dystocia, birth trauma, and cesarean section. The main cause of fetal macrosomia is excessive maternal glucose, which stimulates fetal insulin production and growth.

A. Anxiety due to hospitalization. B. Effects of magnesium sulfate. C. Worsening disease and impending convulsion. D. Gastrointestinal upset. E. Gastrointestinal upset.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Anxiety due to hospitalization is not a likely cause of the signs reported by the patient. Anxiety can cause some symptoms, such as headache, palpitations, or sweating, but it does not cause visual changes or epigastric pain. Anxiety is also not a common complication of pregnancy-induced hypertension, which is a condition characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine.

Choice B reason: Effects of magnesium sulfate are not a likely cause of the signs reported by the patient. Magnesium sulfate is a medication used to prevent seizures and lower blood pressure in patients with pregnancy-induced hypertension. It can cause some side effects, such as flushing, nausea, or drowsiness, but it does not cause headache, visual changes, or epigastric pain. In fact, magnesium sulfate can help relieve these symptoms by reducing the cerebral edema and vasospasm caused by pregnancy-induced hypertension.

Choice C reason: Worsening disease and impending convulsion are the most likely cause of the signs reported by the patient. These signs indicate that the patient is developing severe preeclampsia or eclampsia, which are life-threatening complications of pregnancy-induced hypertension. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure, protein in the urine, and signs of organ damage, such as headache, visual changes, epigastric pain, or decreased urine output. Eclampsia is the occurrence of seizures in a patient with preeclampsia. These conditions can lead to stroke, bleeding, placental abruption, or fetal distress, and require immediate medical attention.

Choice D reason: Gastrointestinal upset is not a likely cause of the signs reported by the patient. Gastrointestinal upset can cause some symptoms, such as nausea, vomiting, or abdominal pain, but it does not cause headache, visual changes, or epigastric pain. Gastrointestinal upset is also not a common complication of pregnancy-induced hypertension, which is a condition that affects the blood vessels and organs, not the digestive system.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

Care management of a woman diagnosed with acute pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) most likely would include:

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

What are the maternal and neonatal risks associated with gestational diabetes mellitus?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A patient with pregnancy-induced hypertension is admitted complaining of pounding headache, visual changes, and epigastric pain. Nursing care is based on the knowledge that these signs are an indication of:

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

What is the result of a nonstress test (NST) in which two or more fetal heart rate (FHR) accelerations of 15 beats/min or more occur with fetal movement in a 20-minute period?

A woman arrives at the clinic for her annual examination. She tells the nurse that she thinks she has a vaginal infection and has been using an over-the-counter cream for the past 2 days to treat it. The nurse's initial response should be to:

Why is glucose metabolism profoundly affected during pregnancy?

Signs and symptoms that a pregnant woman should report immediately to her health care provider include: (Select all that apply.)

A pregnant woman's biophysical profile score is 8. She asks the nurse to explain the results. The nurse's best response is:

Which viral sexually transmitted infection is characterized by a primary infection followed by recurrent episodes?

As related to the care of the patient with miscarriage, nurses should be aware that:

The nurse is counseling a woman who wants to become pregnant. The woman tells the nurse that she has a 28-day menstrual cycle and the first day of her menstrual period was January 8. The nurse correctly calculates that the woman's next fertile period is?