What is the CDC recommended medication for the treatment of chlamydia?
Penicillin
Acyclovir
Doxycycline
Podofilox
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Penicillin is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Penicillin is an antibiotic that works by inhibiting the cell wall synthesis of bacteria. However, chlamydia is an intracellular bacterium that does not have a cell wall and is resistant to penicillin.
Choice B reason: Acyclovir is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Acyclovir is an antiviral drug that works by inhibiting the DNA synthesis of viruses. However, chlamydia is a bacterium, not a virus, and is not affected by acyclovir².
Choice C reason: Doxycycline is the correct option, as it is one of the recommended medications for the treatment of chlamydia. Doxycycline is a tetracycline antibiotic that works by inhibiting the protein synthesis of bacteria. It can penetrate the cells and kill chlamydia by interfering with its growth and reproduction. The CDC recommends a 7-day course of doxycycline (100 mg orally twice a day) for the treatment of uncomplicated chlamydia infection.
Choice D reason: Podofilox is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Podofilox is a topical medication that works by destroying the tissue of genital warts caused by human papillomavirus (HPV). However, chlamydia is a different infection that does not cause genital warts and is not treated by podofilox.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Infection is not the greatest risk for a woman with marginal placenta previa, as it is not directly related to the condition. Marginal placenta previa is a type of placenta previa where the edge of the placenta is near the cervical os but does not cover it. It can cause painless bleeding during pregnancy or labor, but it does not increase the risk of infection.
Choice B reason: Hemorrhage is the greatest risk for a woman with marginal placenta previa, as it can occur due to the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall during labor or delivery. The bleeding can be profuse and life-threatening, and it requires prompt intervention and monitoring.
Choice C reason: Urinary retention is not the greatest risk for a woman with marginal placenta previa, as it is not directly related to the condition. Urinary retention is the inability to empty the bladder completely, and it can occur due to various factors such as anesthesia, trauma, or medication. It can cause discomfort, infection, or bladder distension, but it is not as serious as hemorrhage.
Choice D reason: Thrombophlebitis is not the greatest risk for a woman with marginal placenta previa, as it is not directly related to the condition. Thrombophlebitis is the inflammation of a vein due to a blood clot, and it can occur due to prolonged bed rest, dehydration, or injury. It can cause pain, swelling, or redness in the affected area, and it can lead to pulmonary embolism if the clot dislodges and travels to the lungs. However, it is not as common or as severe as hemorrhage.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Nonreactive is not the correct result, as it indicates that the FHR does not show adequate accelerations with fetal movement. A nonreactive NST means that the FHR does not increase by at least 15 beats/min for at least 15 seconds in a 20-minute period. A nonreactive NST may suggest fetal hypoxia (low oxygen) or fetal sleep.
Choice B reason: Reactive is the correct result, as it indicates that the FHR shows adequate accelerations with fetal movement. A reactive NST means that the FHR increases by at least 15 beats/min for at least 15 seconds twice or more in a 20-minute period. A reactive NST is reassuring and suggests that the fetus is well-oxygenated and healthy.
Choice C reason: Positive is not the correct result, as it is not used to describe the NST. Positive is a term used for the contraction stress test (CST), which is a different test that measures the FHR in response to uterine contractions. A positive CST means that the FHR shows late decelerations (decreases in the FHR that begin after the peak of a contraction and return to the baseline after the contraction ends) with at least 50% of the contractions. A positive CST indicates uteroplacental insufficiency (a condition where the placenta does not deliver enough oxygen and nutrients to the fetus) and fetal distress.
Choice D reason: Negative is not the correct result, as it is also not used to describe the NST. Negative is another term used for the CST, which is a different test that measures the FHR in response to uterine contractions. A negative CST means that the FHR does not show any late decelerations during at least three contractions in a 10-minute period. A negative CST is reassuring and suggests that the fetus is well-oxygenated and can tolerate labor.
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