What is the CDC recommended medication for the treatment of chlamydia?
Penicillin
Acyclovir
Doxycycline
Podofilox
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Penicillin is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Penicillin is an antibiotic that works by inhibiting the cell wall synthesis of bacteria. However, chlamydia is an intracellular bacterium that does not have a cell wall and is resistant to penicillin.
Choice B reason: Acyclovir is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Acyclovir is an antiviral drug that works by inhibiting the DNA synthesis of viruses. However, chlamydia is a bacterium, not a virus, and is not affected by acyclovir².
Choice C reason: Doxycycline is the correct option, as it is one of the recommended medications for the treatment of chlamydia. Doxycycline is a tetracycline antibiotic that works by inhibiting the protein synthesis of bacteria. It can penetrate the cells and kill chlamydia by interfering with its growth and reproduction. The CDC recommends a 7-day course of doxycycline (100 mg orally twice a day) for the treatment of uncomplicated chlamydia infection.
Choice D reason: Podofilox is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Podofilox is a topical medication that works by destroying the tissue of genital warts caused by human papillomavirus (HPV). However, chlamydia is a different infection that does not cause genital warts and is not treated by podofilox.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Low birth weight is not a common complication of GDM, as the fetus tends to grow larger than normal due to the excess glucose and insulin in the blood. Low birth weight is more likely to occur in infants of mothers with preexisting diabetes or other conditions that affect placental function.
Choice B reason: Preterm birth is a possible complication of GDM, as the increased fetal size and the risk of maternal hypertension or infection may induce labor before term. However, it is not the greatest risk for the fetus, as preterm infants can survive with proper care and treatment.
Choice C reason: Macrosomia is the greatest risk for the fetus of a mother with GDM, as it is defined as a birth weight of more than 4000 g or 8 lb 13 oz. Macrosomia can cause difficulties during labor and delivery, such as shoulder dystocia, birth trauma, or cesarean birth. It can also increase the risk of neonatal hypoglycemia, jaundice, or respiratory distress.
Choice D reason: Congenital anomalies of the central nervous system are not a common complication of GDM, as they usually occur in the first trimester of pregnancy, before GDM is diagnosed or develops. Congenital anomalies are more likely to occur in infants of mothers with preexisting diabetes or other genetic or environmental factors.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Quickening is the first perception of fetal movement by the mother, usually occurring between 16 and 20 weeks of gestation. It is a presumptive sign of pregnancy, as it can be subjective and influenced by other factors such as gas or peristalsis.
Choice B reason: A positive pregnancy test is a probable sign of pregnancy, as it indicates the presence of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the urine or blood. However, it is not conclusive, as it can be affected by false positives or false negatives, or by other conditions that produce hCG.
Choice C reason: Braxton Hicks contractions are irregular, painless uterine contractions that occur throughout pregnancy. They are a probable sign of pregnancy, as they indicate uterine activity and preparation for labor. However, they are not diagnostic, as they can also occur in non-pregnant women or in response to other stimuli.
Choice D reason: Fetal movement palpated by the nurse-midwife is a positive sign of pregnancy, as it confirms the presence of a living fetus in the uterus. It is an objective and reliable sign that can be detected by a skilled examiner after 20 weeks of gestation.
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