Magnesium sulfate is given to women with preeclampsia and eclampsia to:
Improve patellar reflexes and increase respiratory efficiency
Shorten the duration of labor
Prevent and treat convulsions
Prevent a boggy uterus and lessen the lochial flow
The Correct Answer is C
Magnesium sulfate is given to women with preeclampsia and eclampsia to prevent and treat convulsions.

Magnesium sulfate is a mineral that reduces seizure risks in women with preeclampsia. A healthcare provider will give the medication intravenously. Sometimes, it’s also used to prolong pregnancy for up to two days. This allows drugs that speed up your baby’s lung development to be administered.
Choice A is wrong because magnesium sulfate does not improve patellar reflexes or increase respiratory efficiency. In fact, it may cause decreased or absent deep tendon reflexes and respiratory depression as side effects.
Choice B is wrong because magnesium sulfate does not shorten the duration of labor. It may actually prolong labor by inhibiting uterine contractions.
Choice D is wrong because magnesium sulfate does not prevent a boggy uterus or lessen the lochial flow. It has no effect on uterine tone or bleeding after delivery.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
This is because a patent ductus arteriosus is a congenital heart defect that involves a defect in which the fetal shunt between the aorta and the pulmonary artery fails to close. This causes a continuous machinery-like murmur that can be heard on auscultation.
Choice A is wrong because pulmonary stenosis is a narrowing of the pulmonary valve or artery that obstructs blood flow to the lungs. It causes a systolic ejection murmur that is best heard at the upper left sternal border.
Choice C is wrong because the ventricular septal defect is a hole in the wall between the ventricles that allows blood to flow from the left to the right side of the heart. It causes a loud, harsh holosystolic murmur that is best heard at the left lower sternal border.
Choice D is wrong because coarctation of the aorta is a narrowing of the aorta that reduces blood flow to the lower body. It causes a systolic murmur that radiates to the back and weak or absent femoral pulses.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Uterine atony.
This is when the uterus does not contract enough to stop the bleeding from the placental site after delivery. It is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage, accounting for up to 80% of cases. Uterine atony can be caused by factors such as prolonged or augmented labor, large baby, multiple pregnancies, infection, or retained placenta.
The woman in question has some risk factors for uterine atony, such as a large baby and augmentation of labor with Pitocin.
The other choices are wrong because:
A . Retained placental fragments: This is when parts of the placenta remain attached to the uterine wall and prevent it from contracting properly. It is the second most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage.
However, there is no indication in the question that the woman had any difficulty with the delivery of the placenta or that it was incomplete
B. Unrepaired vaginal lacerations: This is when there are tears or cuts in the vagina or cervix that cause bleeding. It is a less common cause of postpartum hemorrhage.
However, there is no indication in the question that the woman had any trauma during delivery or that she was examined for lacerations
D. Puerperal infection: This is when there is an infection in the uterus or other parts of the reproductive tract after delivery.
It can cause fever, pain, and bleeding. It is a rare cause of postpartum hemorrhage.
However, there is no indication in the question that the woman had any signs or symptoms of infection, such as fever, chills, or foul-smelling discharge.
Normal ranges for blood loss after delivery are less than 500 mL for vaginal birth and less than 1000 mL for C-section.
Any amount above these thresholds can be considered postpartum hemorrhage and requires prompt evaluation and treatment.
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