A parent asks the nurse why self-monitoring of blood glucose is being recommended for her child with diabetes.
The nurse should base the explanation on what information?
It is a less expensive method of testing
It is not as accurate as laboratory testing
Children need to learn to manage their diabetes
The parents are better able to manage the disease
The Correct Answer is C
This is because self-monitoring of blood glucose allows children to learn how their blood sugar levels change in response to different factors such as food, exercise, stress, and medication.
It also helps them to adjust their insulin doses and dietary intake accordingly. Self-monitoring of blood glucose can improve glycemic control and reduce the risk of complications.
Choice A is wrong because it is not a less expensive method of testing.
Self-monitoring of blood glucose requires a glucose meter, test strips, lancets, and a logbook, which can be costly for some families.
Choice B is wrong because it is not less accurate than laboratory testing.
Self-monitoring of blood glucose can provide accurate and reliable results if done correctly and regularly.
Laboratory testing is usually done periodically to measure the average blood sugar level over the past 2 to 3 months (hemoglobin A1c).
Choice D is wrong because it implies that the parents are not involved in the child’s diabetes management.
Parents should still provide support and guidance to their children with diabetes, especially when they are young or newly diagnosed. Parents should also monitor their child’s blood glucose levels and help them with insulin administration if needed.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Measles (rubeola) is a communicable disease that is characterized by Koplik’s spots, which are clustered, white lesions on the buccal mucosa opposite the lower molars. They appear two to three days before the measles rash and are pathognomonic for measles.
Choice A is wrong because rubella is a different viral infection that causes a mild rash and fever, but does not have Koplik’s spots.
Choice C is wrong because chickenpox (varicella) is caused by the varicella-zoster virus and produces fluid-filled blisters on the skin, not white spots in the mouth.
Choice D is wrong because exanthema subitum (roseola) is caused by the human herpesvirus 6 or 7 and causes a high fever followed by a pink rash on the trunk and neck, but no oral lesions.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This is a normal respiratory change in pregnancy caused by elevated levels of estrogen. Estrogen increases blood flow and causes the nasal mucosa to swell, leading to congestion and nosebleeds. This condition is called pregnancy rhinitis and affects up to 20% of pregnant women.
Choice B is wrong because this is not an abnormal cardiovascular change, and the nosebleeds are not an ominous sign. They are usually harmless and do not affect the pregnancy outcome.
Choice C is wrong because there is no evidence that the woman is a victim of domestic violence.
This is a serious accusation that should not be made without proper assessment and screening.
Choice D is wrong because there is no indication that the woman has been using cocaine intranasally. Cocaine use can cause nasal damage and bleeding, but it can also have other signs and symptoms such as agitation, euphoria, dilated pupils, increased heart rate and blood pressure, and risk of miscarriage or preterm labor.
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