In vitro fertilization-embryo transfer (IVF-ET) is a common approach for women with blocked fallopian tubes or unexplained infertility and for men with very low sperm counts. A husband and wife have arrived for their preprocedural interview. The husband asks the nurse to explain what the procedure entails. The nurse's most appropriate response is:
"A donor embryo will be transferred into your wife's uterus."
"Don't worry about the technical stuff; that's what we are here for."
"IVF-ET is a type of assisted reproductive therapy that involves collecting eggs from your wife's ovaries, fertilizing them in the laboratory with your sperm, and transferring the embryo to her uterus."
"Donor sperm will be used to inseminate your wife."
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because a donor embryo is not used in IVF-ET. A donor embryo is an embryo that was created from another couple's gametes and donated to an infertile couple. IVF-ET uses the couple's own gametes to create an embryo.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because it is dismissive and unprofessional. The nurse should respect the husband's curiosity and provide accurate and clear information about the procedure. The nurse should also address any concerns or questions that the couple may have.
Choice C reason: This is correct because it is a concise and accurate description of the IVF-ET procedure. The nurse explains the main steps and the purpose of the procedure in simple terms.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because donor sperm is not used in IVF-ET. Donor sperm is sperm that was obtained from another man and donated to an infertile couple. IVF-ET uses the husband's own sperm to fertilize the wife's eggs.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C","D"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Seizure activity and hypotension are not signs and symptoms of severe preeclampsia, but rather of eclampsia, which is a life-threatening complication of preeclampsia. Eclampsia is characterized by convulsions and coma, and it requires immediate treatment to prevent maternal and fetal death.
Choice B reason: Platelet count of less than 100,000/mm3 and visual problems are signs and symptoms of severe preeclampsia, as they indicate hematologic and neurologic complications. Severe preeclampsia can cause thrombocytopenia, which is a low platelet count that increases the risk of bleeding. It can also cause cerebral edema, which can impair the vision and cause blurred vision, spots, or flashes of light.
Choice C reason: Ankle clonus and epigastric pain are signs and symptoms of severe preeclampsia, as they indicate neuromuscular and hepatic complications. Severe preeclampsia can cause hyperreflexia, which is an exaggerated reflex response that can be elicited by dorsiflexing the ankle and observing rhythmic jerking of the foot. It can also cause liver damage, which can manifest as epigastric pain or right upper quadrant pain.
Choice D reason: Decreased urinary output and irritability are signs and symptoms of severe preeclampsia, as they indicate renal and central nervous system complications. Severe preeclampsia can cause oliguria, which is a reduced urine output of less than 500 mL in 24 hours. It can also cause increased intracranial pressure, which can affect the mood and behavior and cause irritability, anxiety, or confusion.
Choice E reason: Transient headache and +1 proteinuria are not signs and symptoms of severe preeclampsia, but rather of mild preeclampsia, which is a less severe form of the condition. Mild preeclampsia is characterized by blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg or higher, proteinuria of 1+ or higher, and mild edema. It does not cause severe complications or organ damage, but it can progress to severe preeclampsia if not treated.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Nonreactive is not the correct result, as it indicates that the FHR does not show adequate accelerations with fetal movement. A nonreactive NST means that the FHR does not increase by at least 15 beats/min for at least 15 seconds in a 20-minute period. A nonreactive NST may suggest fetal hypoxia (low oxygen) or fetal sleep.
Choice B reason: Reactive is the correct result, as it indicates that the FHR shows adequate accelerations with fetal movement. A reactive NST means that the FHR increases by at least 15 beats/min for at least 15 seconds twice or more in a 20-minute period. A reactive NST is reassuring and suggests that the fetus is well-oxygenated and healthy.
Choice C reason: Positive is not the correct result, as it is not used to describe the NST. Positive is a term used for the contraction stress test (CST), which is a different test that measures the FHR in response to uterine contractions. A positive CST means that the FHR shows late decelerations (decreases in the FHR that begin after the peak of a contraction and return to the baseline after the contraction ends) with at least 50% of the contractions. A positive CST indicates uteroplacental insufficiency (a condition where the placenta does not deliver enough oxygen and nutrients to the fetus) and fetal distress.
Choice D reason: Negative is not the correct result, as it is also not used to describe the NST. Negative is another term used for the CST, which is a different test that measures the FHR in response to uterine contractions. A negative CST means that the FHR does not show any late decelerations during at least three contractions in a 10-minute period. A negative CST is reassuring and suggests that the fetus is well-oxygenated and can tolerate labor.
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