The nurse has just received a report on a group of clients on the neurosurgical unit. Which client is the nurse’s first priority?

Client who displays plantar flexion when the bottom of the foot is stroked.

Client who consistently demonstrates decortication when stimulated.

Client whose Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) has changed from 15 to 12.

Client whose deep tendon reflexes have become hyperactive.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A Reason:

The client who displays plantar flexion when the bottom of the foot is stroked is exhibiting a normal reflex response known as the plantar reflex. This response indicates that the corticospinal tract is functioning properly. In adults, the normal response is plantar flexion of the toes, which means the toes curl downward. This is not an immediate cause for concern and does not indicate a life-threatening condition.

Choice B Reason:

The client who consistently demonstrates decortication when stimulated is showing signs of severe brain injury. Decorticate posturing is characterized by the arms being flexed at the elbows and held tightly to the chest, with the legs extended and feet turned inward. This type of posturing indicates damage to the cerebral hemispheres, thalamus, or midbrain. While this is a serious condition, it is not necessarily the most immediate priority compared to a sudden change in the Glasgow Coma Scale.

Choice C Reason:

The client whose Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) has changed from 15 to 12 is the nurse’s first priority. The GCS is a critical tool used to assess a patient’s level of consciousness, with scores ranging from 3 (deep coma) to 15 (fully awake and alert). A drop in GCS score indicates a significant decline in neurological function, which could be due to increased intracranial pressure, bleeding, or other acute changes in the brain. This requires immediate assessment and intervention to prevent further deterioration.

Choice D Reason:

The client whose deep tendon reflexes have become hyperactive is showing signs of hyperreflexia. Hyperactive reflexes can indicate an upper motor neuron lesion, which affects the descending corticospinal tract. While this is a concerning sign that warrants further investigation, it is not as immediately critical as a sudden change in the GCS score.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A: He is NPO until the speech-language pathologist performs a swallowing evaluation.

This is the most appropriate response. NPO stands for “nil per os,” which means nothing by mouth. After a stroke, it is crucial to assess the patient’s ability to swallow safely to prevent aspiration, which can lead to pneumonia and other complications. A speech-language pathologist is trained to evaluate swallowing function and determine the safest diet for the patient. Until this evaluation is completed, the patient should not consume any food or liquids.

Choice B: Be sure to sit him up when you are feeding him to make him feel more natural.

While sitting the patient up during feeding is important to reduce the risk of aspiration, it is not sufficient on its own. Without a proper swallowing evaluation, feeding the patient could still pose significant risks. Therefore, this choice is not the most appropriate response.

Choice C: You may give him a full-liquid diet, but please avoid solid foods until he gets stronger.

A full-liquid diet might seem like a safer option, but without a swallowing evaluation, there is still a risk of aspiration. The patient’s ability to handle even liquids needs to be assessed by a professional before any oral intake is allowed.

Choice D: Just be sure to add some thickener in his liquids to prevent choking and aspiration.

Thickening liquids can help manage dysphagia, but this should only be done after a swallowing evaluation has determined the appropriate consistency. Administering thickened liquids without an evaluation could still result in aspiration if the patient has severe swallowing difficulties.

A. Adherence to proper hand hygiene B. Suction the client at least every 2 hours C. Administering antiulcer medication D. Providing oral care per protocol E. Elevating the head of the bed F. Suctioning the client on a regular schedule G. Turning and positioning the client at least every 2 hours

Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","E","G"]

Explanation

Choice A Reason: Adherence to proper hand hygiene

Proper hand hygiene is a fundamental practice in preventing infections, including ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP). Hand hygiene involves washing hands with soap and water or using an alcohol-based hand sanitizer before and after patient contact, after touching potentially contaminated surfaces, and before performing any aseptic procedures. This practice helps to reduce the transmission of pathogens that can cause infections in mechanically ventilated patients. Studies have shown that adherence to hand hygiene protocols significantly decreases the incidence of VAP and other healthcare-associated infections.

Choice B Reason: Suction the client at least every 2 hours

While suctioning is an important aspect of care for mechanically ventilated patients, routine suctioning every 2 hours is not recommended. Instead, suctioning should be performed based on the patient’s clinical condition and as needed. Over-suctioning can cause trauma to the airway and increase the risk of infection. Therefore, this choice is not included in the best practices for preventing VAP.

Choice C Reason: Administering antiulcer medication

Administering antiulcer medication is a recommended practice to prevent stress ulcers and gastrointestinal bleeding in mechanically ventilated patients. Stress ulcers can lead to complications such as aspiration of gastric contents, which can contribute to the development of VAP. Antiulcer medications, such as proton pump inhibitors or H2 receptor antagonists, help to reduce gastric acidity and the risk of ulcer formation. This practice is part of the comprehensive care plan to prevent VAP.

Choice D Reason: Providing oral care per protocol

Providing oral care per protocol is a critical component of VAP prevention. Oral care involves cleaning the patient’s mouth, teeth, and gums to reduce the colonization of harmful bacteria that can be aspirated into the lungs. Protocols for oral care typically include the use of antiseptic solutions, such as chlorhexidine, to disinfect the oral cavity. Regular oral care has been shown to significantly reduce the incidence of VAP in mechanically ventilated patients.

Choice E Reason: Elevating the head of the bed

Elevating the head of the bed to an angle of 30 to 45 degrees is a recommended practice to prevent VAP. This position helps to reduce the risk of aspiration of gastric contents into the lungs, which is a major risk factor for VAP. Elevating the head of the bed also promotes better lung expansion and ventilation, which can improve the patient’s respiratory status. This practice is widely recognized as an effective measure to prevent VAP.

Choice F Reason: Suctioning the client on a regular schedule

Similar to Choice B, routine suctioning on a regular schedule is not recommended. Suctioning should be performed based on the patient’s clinical needs and not on a fixed schedule. Over-suctioning can cause harm and increase the risk of infection. Therefore, this choice is not included in the best practices for preventing VAP.

Choice G Reason: Turning and positioning the client at least every 2 hours

Turning and positioning the client at least every 2 hours is an important practice to prevent complications such as pressure ulcers and to promote lung expansion. Regular repositioning helps to improve ventilation and drainage of secretions, reducing the risk of VAP. This practice is part of the standard care for mechanically ventilated patients to prevent various complications, including VAP.

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The nurse has just received a report on a group of clients on the neurosurgical unit. Which client is the nurse’s first priority?

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","E","G"]

Explanation

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