The nurse has just received a report on a group of clients on the neurosurgical unit. Which client is the nurse’s first priority?
Client who displays plantar flexion when the bottom of the foot is stroked.
Client who consistently demonstrates decortication when stimulated.
Client whose Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) has changed from 15 to 12.
Client whose deep tendon reflexes have become hyperactive.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A Reason:
The client who displays plantar flexion when the bottom of the foot is stroked is exhibiting a normal reflex response known as the plantar reflex. This response indicates that the corticospinal tract is functioning properly. In adults, the normal response is plantar flexion of the toes, which means the toes curl downward. This is not an immediate cause for concern and does not indicate a life-threatening condition.
Choice B Reason:
The client who consistently demonstrates decortication when stimulated is showing signs of severe brain injury. Decorticate posturing is characterized by the arms being flexed at the elbows and held tightly to the chest, with the legs extended and feet turned inward. This type of posturing indicates damage to the cerebral hemispheres, thalamus, or midbrain. While this is a serious condition, it is not necessarily the most immediate priority compared to a sudden change in the Glasgow Coma Scale.
Choice C Reason:
The client whose Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) has changed from 15 to 12 is the nurse’s first priority. The GCS is a critical tool used to assess a patient’s level of consciousness, with scores ranging from 3 (deep coma) to 15 (fully awake and alert). A drop in GCS score indicates a significant decline in neurological function, which could be due to increased intracranial pressure, bleeding, or other acute changes in the brain. This requires immediate assessment and intervention to prevent further deterioration.
Choice D Reason:
The client whose deep tendon reflexes have become hyperactive is showing signs of hyperreflexia. Hyperactive reflexes can indicate an upper motor neuron lesion, which affects the descending corticospinal tract. While this is a concerning sign that warrants further investigation, it is not as immediately critical as a sudden change in the GCS score.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Administering levetiracetam intravenously is not the first intervention. While levetiracetam is an antiepileptic drug used to control seizures, it is not the first-line treatment for an ongoing seizure, especially one lasting as long as 15 minutes. The priority in this situation is to stop the seizure activity immediately to prevent further complications, such as neuronal damage or status epilepticus. Levetiracetam may be used later for maintenance therapy, but it is not the initial emergency intervention.
Choice B Reason:
Obtaining a STAT electroencephalogram (EEG) is important for diagnosing and understanding the type of seizure activity, but it is not the first intervention. The immediate priority is to stop the seizure. An EEG can be performed after the seizure has been controlled to assess brain activity and guide further treatment. Delaying the administration of an anticonvulsant to perform an EEG could result in prolonged seizure activity and increased risk of complications.
Choice C Reason:
Administering lorazepam intravenously is the most appropriate first intervention. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine that acts quickly to stop seizure activity. It is the drug of choice for treating status epilepticus and prolonged seizures because of its rapid onset and effectiveness. Administering lorazepam helps to quickly terminate the seizure, reducing the risk of complications and stabilizing the patient for further evaluation and treatment.
Choice D Reason:
Obtaining a STAT 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) is not the first intervention. While an ECG can provide valuable information about the patient’s cardiac status, it does not address the immediate need to stop the seizure. The priority is to administer an anticonvulsant to terminate the seizure. Once the seizure is controlled, an ECG can be performed to assess any potential cardiac issues, especially if the patient has a history of cardiac problems or if the seizure was triggered by a cardiac event.
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A: Instruct the patient to withhold any medication for diuretic therapy.
Reason: Diuretics can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, which can complicate the cardiac catheterization procedure. Withholding diuretics helps to maintain fluid balance and reduce the risk of complications during the procedure
Choice B: Prepare to administer fluids 2 hours before the procedure for patients with renal dysfunction.
Reason: Administering fluids before the procedure helps to prevent contrast-induced nephropathy, especially in patients with renal dysfunction. Hydration helps to flush out the contrast material used during the procedure, reducing the risk of kidney damage.
Choice C: Advise the patient to take all anticoagulants.
Reason: This choice is incorrect. Patients are usually advised to withhold anticoagulants before a cardiac catheterization to reduce the risk of bleeding complications. The decision to continue or withhold anticoagulants should be based on a careful assessment of the patient’s risk of thromboembolism versus the risk of bleeding.
Choice D: Administer steroids if the patient has an allergy to iodine-based contrast.
Reason: Administering steroids is a common premedication strategy for patients with a known allergy to iodine-based contrast media. Steroids help to reduce the risk of an allergic reaction during the procedure.
Choice E: Ensure that the patient is NPO for a minimum of 2 hours before the procedure.
Reason: Ensuring that the patient is NPO (nothing by mouth) helps to reduce the risk of aspiration during the procedure. Typically, patients are advised to be NPO for 6-8 hours before the procedure, but a minimum of 2 hours is essential.
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