Which symptom will the nurse anticipate in a patient diagnosed with supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) with a non-sustained ventricular response?
Occasional palpitations
Weakness
Shortness of breath
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A Reason:
Occasional palpitations are a common symptom of supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) with a non-sustained ventricular response. Palpitations are sensations of a rapid, fluttering, or pounding heartbeat, which occur due to the irregular and fast heart rate characteristic of SVT. These palpitations can be intermittent and may vary in intensity, often causing discomfort and anxiety in patients.
Choice B Reason:
Weakness can be associated with SVT, but it is not as specific or common as palpitations. Weakness may occur due to the reduced cardiac output and decreased perfusion to the muscles during episodes of rapid heart rate. However, it is not the primary symptom that nurses would anticipate in patients with SVT.
Choice C Reason:
Shortness of breath is another symptom that can occur with SVT, especially during prolonged episodes. The rapid heart rate can lead to decreased efficiency in blood circulation, causing the patient to feel breathless. While shortness of breath is a significant symptom, palpitations are more directly associated with the diagnosis of SVT.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is F
Explanation
Assessment: Patient had 2 semi-formed bowel movements 1 hour after administration of the medication
Choice A Reason:
Assessment: Patient denies vomiting
This choice is not directly related to the effectiveness of Kayexalate. Vomiting can be a symptom of hyperkalemia, but the absence of vomiting does not indicate that the medication is working. Kayexalate works by binding potassium in the intestines and removing it through the stool, so the presence of bowel movements is a more direct indicator of its effectiveness.
Choice B Reason:
ECG: Flattening of QRS complex angle
Flattening of the QRS complex angle is not a typical ECG change associated with hyperkalemia or its treatment. Hyperkalemia typically causes widening of the QRS complex, and effective treatment would normalize this. Therefore, this choice is not correct.
Choice C Reason:
ECG: Widening of the QRS complex
Widening of the QRS complex is a sign of hyperkalemia, not its resolution. If the medication is effective, the QRS complex should return to a normal width. Therefore, this choice is not correct.
Choice D Reason:
Assessment: Patient consumed 60% of meal
While nutritional intake is important, it is not a direct indicator of the effectiveness of Kayexalate. The medication’s effectiveness is better assessed by changes in potassium levels and related symptoms, not by meal consumption.
Choice E Reason:
Assessment: Patient denies nausea
Similar to vomiting, nausea can be a symptom of hyperkalemia, but the absence of nausea does not indicate that the medication is working. The effectiveness of Kayexalate is better assessed by the presence of bowel movements and changes in potassium levels.
Choice F Reason:
Assessment: Patient had 2 semi-formed bowel movements 1 hour after administration of the medication
This is the correct answer. Kayexalate works by binding potassium in the intestines and removing it through the stool. The presence of bowel movements indicates that the medication is working to remove potassium from the body. This is a direct and relevant assessment finding.
Choice G Reason:
ECG: Shortening of P wave duration
Shortening of the P wave duration is not a typical ECG change associated with hyperkalemia or its treatment. Therefore, this choice is not correct.
Choice H Reason:
Assessment: Patient denies pain
Pain is not a typical symptom of hyperkalemia, and its absence does not indicate that the medication is working. Therefore, this choice is not correct.
Choice I Reason:
ECG: Reduction of T wave amplitude
Reduction of T wave amplitude can be a sign of hypokalemia, not hyperkalemia. Effective treatment of hyperkalemia would normalize the T wave amplitude, not reduce it. Therefore, this choice is not correct.
Correct Answer is ["31"]
Explanation
Step 1: Calculate the total infusion time in minutes.
8 hours × 60 minutes/hour = 480 minutes
Result at each step = 480 minutes
Step 2: Calculate the total number of drops to be infused.
1,000 mL × 15 drops/mL = 15,000 drops
Result at each step = 15,000 drops
Step 3: Calculate the infusion rate in drops per minute.
15,000 drops ÷ 480 minutes = 31.25 drops/minute
Result at each step = 31.25 drops/minute
Step 4: Round to the nearest whole number if necessary.
31.25 drops/minute rounds to 31 drops/minute
Result at each step = 31 drops/minute
Therefore, the nurse should run the IV infusion at a rate of 31 drops per minute.
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