A nurse is caring for a client who has the following arterial blood gas results: HCO3 18 mEq/L, PaCO2 28 mm Hg, and pH 7.30. The nurse recognizes the client is experiencing which of the following acid-base imbalances?

Metabolic alkalosis

Respiratory alkalosis

Respiratory acidosis

Metabolic acidosis

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A Reason:

Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by an elevated pH (greater than 7.45) and an increased bicarbonate (HCO3) level. In this case, the pH is 7.30, indicating acidosis, and the HCO3 level is 18 mEq/L, which is below the normal range (22-26 mEq/L). Therefore, metabolic alkalosis is not the correct diagnosis.

Choice B Reason:

Respiratory alkalosis is indicated by a high pH (greater than 7.45) and a low PaCO2 (less than 35 mm Hg). Although the PaCO2 is low at 28 mm Hg, the pH is 7.30, indicating acidosis rather than alkalosis. Therefore, respiratory alkalosis is not the correct diagnosis.

Choice C Reason:

Respiratory acidosis is characterized by a low pH (less than 7.35) and an elevated PaCO2 (greater than 45 mm Hg). In this case, the pH is low, indicating acidosis, but the PaCO2 is also low at 28 mm Hg, which does not fit the criteria for respiratory acidosis. Therefore, respiratory acidosis is not the correct diagnosis.

Choice D Reason:

Metabolic acidosis is indicated by a low pH (less than 7.35) and a low bicarbonate (HCO3) level (less than 22 mEq/L). In this case, the pH is 7.30, indicating acidosis, and the HCO3 level is 18 mEq/L, which is below the normal range. The low PaCO2 of 28 mm Hg suggests a compensatory respiratory response to the metabolic acidosis. Therefore, metabolic acidosis is the correct diagnosis.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A Reason:

Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest drainage system typically indicates an air leak. This can occur if there is a break in the system, allowing air to enter. The air leak could be from the chest tube insertion site, the tubing, or the drainage system itself. Identifying and correcting the source of the air leak is crucial to ensure the system functions properly and the patient’s condition does not worsen.

Choice B Reason:

A tension pneumothorax is a life-threatening condition where air accumulates in the pleural space and cannot escape, leading to increased pressure on the lungs and other thoracic structures. While a tension pneumothorax can cause significant respiratory distress, it is not typically indicated by constant bubbling in the water seal chamber. Instead, signs of tension pneumothorax include tracheal deviation, hypotension, and severe respiratory distress.

Choice C Reason:

A kink in the tubing of a chest drainage system can obstruct the flow of air and fluid, but it does not cause constant bubbling in the water seal chamber. Instead, a kink would likely result in a lack of drainage or intermittent bubbling as the obstruction temporarily blocks and then allows passage of air or fluid.

Choice D Reason:

Increased drainage in a chest tube system indicates that more fluid or air is being removed from the pleural space, but it does not cause constant bubbling in the water seal chamber. Increased drainage might be seen in cases of hemothorax or pleural effusion, where large amounts of fluid are present.

Choice E Reason:

Tidaling refers to the normal rise and fall of water in the water seal chamber with the patient’s respiratory cycle. It indicates that the chest tube is patent and functioning correctly. Absence of tidaling could suggest that the lung has fully re-expanded or that there is an obstruction in the system. However, tidaling itself does not cause constant bubbling.

A. Administer levetiracetam intravenously. B. Obtain a STAT electroencephalogram. C. Administer lorazepam intravenously. D. Obtain a STAT 12-lead electrocardiogram.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A Reason:

Administering levetiracetam intravenously is not the first intervention. While levetiracetam is an antiepileptic drug used to control seizures, it is not the first-line treatment for an ongoing seizure, especially one lasting as long as 15 minutes. The priority in this situation is to stop the seizure activity immediately to prevent further complications, such as neuronal damage or status epilepticus. Levetiracetam may be used later for maintenance therapy, but it is not the initial emergency intervention.

Choice B Reason:

Obtaining a STAT electroencephalogram (EEG) is important for diagnosing and understanding the type of seizure activity, but it is not the first intervention. The immediate priority is to stop the seizure. An EEG can be performed after the seizure has been controlled to assess brain activity and guide further treatment. Delaying the administration of an anticonvulsant to perform an EEG could result in prolonged seizure activity and increased risk of complications.

Choice C Reason:

Administering lorazepam intravenously is the most appropriate first intervention. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine that acts quickly to stop seizure activity. It is the drug of choice for treating status epilepticus and prolonged seizures because of its rapid onset and effectiveness. Administering lorazepam helps to quickly terminate the seizure, reducing the risk of complications and stabilizing the patient for further evaluation and treatment.

Choice D Reason:

Obtaining a STAT 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) is not the first intervention. While an ECG can provide valuable information about the patient’s cardiac status, it does not address the immediate need to stop the seizure. The priority is to administer an anticonvulsant to terminate the seizure. Once the seizure is controlled, an ECG can be performed to assess any potential cardiac issues, especially if the patient has a history of cardiac problems or if the seizure was triggered by a cardiac event.

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A nurse is caring for a client who has the following arterial blood gas results: HCO3 18 mEq/L, PaCO2 28 mm Hg, and pH 7.30. The nurse recognizes the client is experiencing which of the following acid-base imbalances?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is taking care of a 60-year-old client with constant bubbling in the water seal chamber. The nurse knows that constant bubbling in the water seal of a chest drainage system indicates which problem?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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