The nurse administers amiodarone to a client with ventricular tachycardia. Which monitoring by the nurse is necessary with this drug? (Select all that apply)
QT interval
Heart rate
Respiratory rate
Heart rhythm
Urine output
Correct Answer : A,B,D
Choice A Reason:
Monitoring the QT interval is crucial when administering amiodarone because this drug can prolong the QT interval, increasing the risk of torsades de pointes, a potentially life-threatening form of ventricular tachycardia. The QT interval represents the time it takes for the heart’s ventricles to depolarize and repolarize, and prolongation can lead to arrhythmias. Regular monitoring helps in early detection and prevention of such adverse effects.
Choice B Reason:
Heart rate monitoring is essential when administering amiodarone because the drug can cause bradycardia (a slower than normal heart rate). Amiodarone affects the electrical conduction system of the heart, which can lead to significant changes in heart rate. Monitoring the heart rate ensures that any bradycardia is detected early and managed appropriately to prevent complications such as hypotension or heart failure.
Choice C Reason:
While respiratory rate monitoring is important in general patient care, it is not specifically necessary for monitoring the effects of amiodarone. Amiodarone primarily affects the heart’s electrical activity and has less direct impact on respiratory function. However, in cases of severe adverse reactions, such as pulmonary toxicity, respiratory monitoring may become relevant.
Choice D Reason:
Monitoring heart rhythm is vital when administering amiodarone because the drug is used to treat arrhythmias and can also cause new arrhythmias or exacerbate existing ones. Continuous ECG monitoring helps in detecting any abnormal heart rhythms early, allowing for timely intervention. This is particularly important in patients with a history of arrhythmias or those receiving high doses of amiodarone.
Choice E Reason:
Urine output monitoring is not specifically necessary for patients receiving amiodarone. While maintaining adequate urine output is important for overall patient health, amiodarone does not typically affect renal function directly. Therefore, urine output monitoring is not a primary concern when administering this medication.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","E"]
Explanation
Choice A: Nephropathy
Diabetic nephropathy is a common microvascular complication of diabetes mellitus. It is characterized by damage to the small blood vessels in the kidneys, leading to progressive kidney disease. The condition is often identified by the presence of protein in the urine (proteinuria) and can progress to end-stage renal disease if not managed properly. The primary mechanism involves hyperglycemia-induced damage to the glomeruli, the filtering units of the kidneys. This damage results in increased permeability and eventual scarring, impairing kidney function. Effective management of blood glucose levels and blood pressure is crucial in preventing or slowing the progression of diabetic nephropathy.
Choice B: Neuropathy
Diabetic neuropathy refers to nerve damage caused by chronic high blood sugar levels. It is another significant microvascular complication of diabetes. This condition can affect various types of nerves, including sensory, motor, and autonomic nerves. Symptoms may include pain, tingling, numbness, and loss of sensation, particularly in the extremities. Diabetic neuropathy can lead to severe complications such as foot ulcers and infections, which may necessitate amputation. The pathophysiology involves hyperglycemia-induced oxidative stress and inflammation, leading to nerve damage. Tight glycemic control and regular monitoring are essential in managing diabetic neuropathy.

Choice E: Retinopathy
Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness among adults with diabetes. This microvascular complication involves damage to the small blood vessels in the retina, the light-sensitive tissue at the back of the eye. There are two main types: non-proliferative and proliferative retinopathy. Non-proliferative retinopathy is characterized by microaneurysms, hemorrhages, and exudates, while proliferative retinopathy involves the growth of new, fragile blood vessels that can bleed and cause retinal detachment. The primary cause is prolonged hyperglycemia, which damages the retinal blood vessels. Regular eye examinations and good glycemic control are vital in preventing and managing diabetic retinopathy.
Choice C: Peripheral Vascular Disease
Peripheral vascular disease (PVD) is not classified as a microvascular complication but rather a macrovascular one. It involves the narrowing or blockage of the blood vessels outside the heart and brain, primarily affecting the arteries in the legs. PVD is associated with atherosclerosis, where plaque builds up in the arterial walls, leading to reduced blood flow. Symptoms include leg pain, cramping, and ulcers. While PVD is a significant concern for individuals with diabetes, it is not considered a microvascular complication.
Choice D: Cerebral Vascular Disease
Cerebral vascular disease, which includes conditions such as stroke and transient ischemic attacks (TIAs), is also a macrovascular complication rather than a microvascular one. It involves the blood vessels supplying the brain and is primarily caused by atherosclerosis and hypertension. Diabetes increases the risk of cerebral vascular disease due to its association with other risk factors like high blood pressure and dyslipidemia. However, it is not classified as a microvascular complication.
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","E","G"]
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Adherence to proper hand hygiene
Proper hand hygiene is a fundamental practice in preventing infections, including ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP). Hand hygiene involves washing hands with soap and water or using an alcohol-based hand sanitizer before and after patient contact, after touching potentially contaminated surfaces, and before performing any aseptic procedures. This practice helps to reduce the transmission of pathogens that can cause infections in mechanically ventilated patients. Studies have shown that adherence to hand hygiene protocols significantly decreases the incidence of VAP and other healthcare-associated infections.
Choice B Reason: Suction the client at least every 2 hours
While suctioning is an important aspect of care for mechanically ventilated patients, routine suctioning every 2 hours is not recommended. Instead, suctioning should be performed based on the patient’s clinical condition and as needed. Over-suctioning can cause trauma to the airway and increase the risk of infection. Therefore, this choice is not included in the best practices for preventing VAP.
Choice C Reason: Administering antiulcer medication
Administering antiulcer medication is a recommended practice to prevent stress ulcers and gastrointestinal bleeding in mechanically ventilated patients. Stress ulcers can lead to complications such as aspiration of gastric contents, which can contribute to the development of VAP. Antiulcer medications, such as proton pump inhibitors or H2 receptor antagonists, help to reduce gastric acidity and the risk of ulcer formation. This practice is part of the comprehensive care plan to prevent VAP.

Choice D Reason: Providing oral care per protocol
Providing oral care per protocol is a critical component of VAP prevention. Oral care involves cleaning the patient’s mouth, teeth, and gums to reduce the colonization of harmful bacteria that can be aspirated into the lungs. Protocols for oral care typically include the use of antiseptic solutions, such as chlorhexidine, to disinfect the oral cavity. Regular oral care has been shown to significantly reduce the incidence of VAP in mechanically ventilated patients.
Choice E Reason: Elevating the head of the bed
Elevating the head of the bed to an angle of 30 to 45 degrees is a recommended practice to prevent VAP. This position helps to reduce the risk of aspiration of gastric contents into the lungs, which is a major risk factor for VAP. Elevating the head of the bed also promotes better lung expansion and ventilation, which can improve the patient’s respiratory status. This practice is widely recognized as an effective measure to prevent VAP.
Choice F Reason: Suctioning the client on a regular schedule
Similar to Choice B, routine suctioning on a regular schedule is not recommended. Suctioning should be performed based on the patient’s clinical needs and not on a fixed schedule. Over-suctioning can cause harm and increase the risk of infection. Therefore, this choice is not included in the best practices for preventing VAP.
Choice G Reason: Turning and positioning the client at least every 2 hours
Turning and positioning the client at least every 2 hours is an important practice to prevent complications such as pressure ulcers and to promote lung expansion. Regular repositioning helps to improve ventilation and drainage of secretions, reducing the risk of VAP. This practice is part of the standard care for mechanically ventilated patients to prevent various complications, including VAP.
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