The nurse administers amiodarone to a client with ventricular tachycardia. Which monitoring by the nurse is necessary with this drug? (Select all that apply)
QT interval
Heart rate
Respiratory rate
Heart rhythm
Urine output
Correct Answer : A,B,D
Choice A Reason:
Monitoring the QT interval is crucial when administering amiodarone because this drug can prolong the QT interval, increasing the risk of torsades de pointes, a potentially life-threatening form of ventricular tachycardia. The QT interval represents the time it takes for the heart’s ventricles to depolarize and repolarize, and prolongation can lead to arrhythmias. Regular monitoring helps in early detection and prevention of such adverse effects.
Choice B Reason:
Heart rate monitoring is essential when administering amiodarone because the drug can cause bradycardia (a slower than normal heart rate). Amiodarone affects the electrical conduction system of the heart, which can lead to significant changes in heart rate. Monitoring the heart rate ensures that any bradycardia is detected early and managed appropriately to prevent complications such as hypotension or heart failure.
Choice C Reason:
While respiratory rate monitoring is important in general patient care, it is not specifically necessary for monitoring the effects of amiodarone. Amiodarone primarily affects the heart’s electrical activity and has less direct impact on respiratory function. However, in cases of severe adverse reactions, such as pulmonary toxicity, respiratory monitoring may become relevant.
Choice D Reason:
Monitoring heart rhythm is vital when administering amiodarone because the drug is used to treat arrhythmias and can also cause new arrhythmias or exacerbate existing ones. Continuous ECG monitoring helps in detecting any abnormal heart rhythms early, allowing for timely intervention. This is particularly important in patients with a history of arrhythmias or those receiving high doses of amiodarone.
Choice E Reason:
Urine output monitoring is not specifically necessary for patients receiving amiodarone. While maintaining adequate urine output is important for overall patient health, amiodarone does not typically affect renal function directly. Therefore, urine output monitoring is not a primary concern when administering this medication.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A: Ammonia
Lactulose is administered to patients with hepatic encephalopathy to reduce the levels of ammonia in the blood. Hepatic encephalopathy occurs due to the liver’s inability to detoxify ammonia, a byproduct of protein metabolism. Lactulose works by converting ammonia into ammonium, which is then excreted in the stool. This helps to lower blood ammonia levels and alleviate the symptoms of hepatic encephalopathy.
Choice B: Dysarthria
Dysarthria, or difficulty in articulating words, is a common symptom of Parkinson’s disease. It results from the muscle rigidity and bradykinesia (slowness of movement) that affect the muscles involved in speech. Patients with Parkinson’s often have a soft, monotone voice and may struggle with the clarity of their speech.
Choice C: Muscle Rigidity
Muscle rigidity is one of the hallmark symptoms of Parkinson’s disease. It refers to the stiffness and inflexibility of the muscles, which can affect any part of the body. This rigidity can lead to discomfort and pain, and it contributes to the characteristic stooped posture and shuffling gait seen in Parkinson’s patients.
Choice D: Seizures
Seizures are not typically associated with Parkinson’s disease. While Parkinson’s affects the central nervous system, it primarily impacts motor function rather than causing seizure activity. Therefore, this is not a common finding in Parkinson’s patients.
Choice E: Drooling at Times
Drooling, or sialorrhea, is a common symptom in Parkinson’s disease. It occurs due to the decreased ability to swallow saliva, which can result from muscle rigidity and bradykinesia affecting the muscles involved in swallowing. This can be particularly bothersome for patients and may require management strategies.
Choice F: Mask-like Facial Expression
A mask-like facial expression, also known as hypomimia, is a common feature of Parkinson’s disease. It results from the rigidity and bradykinesia affecting the facial muscles, leading to reduced facial expressions and a fixed, staring appearance.
Choice G: Shuffled Gait
A shuffled gait is a characteristic feature of Parkinson’s disease. Patients often take small, shuffling steps and may have difficulty initiating movement. This gait pattern is due to the combination of muscle rigidity, bradykinesia, and postural instability.
Choice H: Stooped Posture
Stooped posture is another common symptom of Parkinson’s disease. It results from the muscle rigidity and postural instability that affect the patient’s ability to maintain an upright position. This can lead to a forward-leaning posture and balance issues.
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A: Instruct the patient to withhold any medication for diuretic therapy.
Reason: Diuretics can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, which can complicate the cardiac catheterization procedure. Withholding diuretics helps to maintain fluid balance and reduce the risk of complications during the procedure
Choice B: Prepare to administer fluids 2 hours before the procedure for patients with renal dysfunction.
Reason: Administering fluids before the procedure helps to prevent contrast-induced nephropathy, especially in patients with renal dysfunction. Hydration helps to flush out the contrast material used during the procedure, reducing the risk of kidney damage.
Choice C: Advise the patient to take all anticoagulants.
Reason: This choice is incorrect. Patients are usually advised to withhold anticoagulants before a cardiac catheterization to reduce the risk of bleeding complications. The decision to continue or withhold anticoagulants should be based on a careful assessment of the patient’s risk of thromboembolism versus the risk of bleeding.
Choice D: Administer steroids if the patient has an allergy to iodine-based contrast.
Reason: Administering steroids is a common premedication strategy for patients with a known allergy to iodine-based contrast media. Steroids help to reduce the risk of an allergic reaction during the procedure.
Choice E: Ensure that the patient is NPO for a minimum of 2 hours before the procedure.
Reason: Ensuring that the patient is NPO (nothing by mouth) helps to reduce the risk of aspiration during the procedure. Typically, patients are advised to be NPO for 6-8 hours before the procedure, but a minimum of 2 hours is essential.
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