A nurse is caring for a client who is in a myxedema coma. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Place the client on aspiration precautions.
Turn the client every 4 hours.
Check the client’s blood pressure every 2 hours.
Initiate measures to cool the client.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A Reason:
Place the client on aspiration precautions: Myxedema coma is a severe form of hypothyroidism that can lead to decreased mental function and a reduced level of consciousness. These conditions increase the risk of aspiration, which can lead to pneumonia and other complications. Therefore, placing the client on aspiration precautions is crucial to prevent these risks. Aspiration precautions may include elevating the head of the bed, monitoring swallowing ability, and providing thickened liquids if necessary.

Choice B Reason:
Turn the client every 4 hours: While turning the client regularly is important to prevent pressure ulcers, it is not the primary action needed for a client in a myxedema coma. The focus should be on stabilizing the client’s condition and preventing life-threatening complications such as aspiration, respiratory failure, and cardiovascular collapse.
Choice C Reason:
Check the client’s blood pressure every 2 hours: Monitoring vital signs, including blood pressure, is essential for clients in a myxedema coma. However, it is not the most critical action compared to preventing aspiration. Blood pressure should be monitored regularly, but the frequency can be adjusted based on the client’s condition and stability.
Choice D Reason:
Initiate measures to cool the client: Clients in a myxedema coma typically present with hypothermia (low body temperature), not hyperthermia (high body temperature). Therefore, initiating measures to cool the client would be inappropriate and could worsen their condition. Instead, measures to warm the client, such as using blankets and adjusting room temperature, are more appropriate.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
The client who displays plantar flexion when the bottom of the foot is stroked is exhibiting a normal reflex response known as the plantar reflex. This response indicates that the corticospinal tract is functioning properly. In adults, the normal response is plantar flexion of the toes, which means the toes curl downward. This is not an immediate cause for concern and does not indicate a life-threatening condition.
Choice B Reason:
The client who consistently demonstrates decortication when stimulated is showing signs of severe brain injury. Decorticate posturing is characterized by the arms being flexed at the elbows and held tightly to the chest, with the legs extended and feet turned inward. This type of posturing indicates damage to the cerebral hemispheres, thalamus, or midbrain. While this is a serious condition, it is not necessarily the most immediate priority compared to a sudden change in the Glasgow Coma Scale.
Choice C Reason:
The client whose Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) has changed from 15 to 12 is the nurse’s first priority. The GCS is a critical tool used to assess a patient’s level of consciousness, with scores ranging from 3 (deep coma) to 15 (fully awake and alert). A drop in GCS score indicates a significant decline in neurological function, which could be due to increased intracranial pressure, bleeding, or other acute changes in the brain. This requires immediate assessment and intervention to prevent further deterioration.
Choice D Reason:
The client whose deep tendon reflexes have become hyperactive is showing signs of hyperreflexia. Hyperactive reflexes can indicate an upper motor neuron lesion, which affects the descending corticospinal tract. While this is a concerning sign that warrants further investigation, it is not as immediately critical as a sudden change in the GCS score.
Correct Answer is ["B","C","G"]
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Breath sounds diminished on auscultation indicate that there may still be fluid or air in the pleural space, suggesting that the chest tube is still needed to drain the pleural cavity. This is not an appropriate reason to discontinue a chest tube as it indicates ongoing issues that need to be resolved.
Choice B Reason:
Improved respiratory status is a key indicator that the chest tube has successfully resolved the underlying issue, such as a pneumothorax or pleural effusion. When the patient shows signs of stable and improved breathing, it suggests that the chest tube has served its purpose and can be safely removed.

Choice C Reason:
Symmetrical rise and fall of the chest during respiration indicate that both lungs are expanding and contracting normally. This symmetry is a sign that the pleural space is no longer compromised, making it an appropriate reason to remove the chest tube.
Choice D Reason:
Oxygen saturation at least 90% is a general indicator of adequate oxygenation but does not specifically address the condition of the pleural space. While important, it is not a direct reason to discontinue a chest tube without other supporting signs.
Choice E Reason:
Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an ongoing air leak, which means that the chest tube is still necessary to evacuate air from the pleural space. This is not an appropriate reason to remove the chest tube.
Choice F Reason:
An asymmetrical chest on inspiration and expiration suggests that there is still an issue with lung expansion, possibly due to fluid or air in the pleural space. This condition requires the chest tube to remain in place until resolved.
Choice G Reason:
Bilateral breath sounds clear on auscultation indicate that both lungs are free of fluid and air, and are functioning normally. This is a strong indicator that the chest tube has achieved its purpose and can be safely removed.
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