In addition to assessing peripheral pulses and auscultating the patient’s heart and lung sounds, which action will be implemented by the nurse before a cardiac catheterization? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.
Instruct the patient to withhold any medication for diuretic therapy.
Prepare to administer fluids 2 hours before the procedure for patients with renal dysfunction.
Advise the patient to take all anticoagulants.
Administer steroids if the patient has an allergy to iodine-based contrast.
Ensure that the patient is NPO for a minimum of 2 hours before the procedure.
Correct Answer : A,C,D,E
Choice A: Instruct the patient to withhold any medication for diuretic therapy.
Reason: Diuretics can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, which can complicate the cardiac catheterization procedure. Withholding diuretics helps to maintain fluid balance and reduce the risk of complications during the procedure
Choice B: Prepare to administer fluids 2 hours before the procedure for patients with renal dysfunction.
Reason: Administering fluids before the procedure helps to prevent contrast-induced nephropathy, especially in patients with renal dysfunction. Hydration helps to flush out the contrast material used during the procedure, reducing the risk of kidney damage.
Choice C: Advise the patient to take all anticoagulants.
Reason: This choice is incorrect. Patients are usually advised to withhold anticoagulants before a cardiac catheterization to reduce the risk of bleeding complications. The decision to continue or withhold anticoagulants should be based on a careful assessment of the patient’s risk of thromboembolism versus the risk of bleeding.
Choice D: Administer steroids if the patient has an allergy to iodine-based contrast.
Reason: Administering steroids is a common premedication strategy for patients with a known allergy to iodine-based contrast media. Steroids help to reduce the risk of an allergic reaction during the procedure.
Choice E: Ensure that the patient is NPO for a minimum of 2 hours before the procedure.
Reason: Ensuring that the patient is NPO (nothing by mouth) helps to reduce the risk of aspiration during the procedure. Typically, patients are advised to be NPO for 6-8 hours before the procedure, but a minimum of 2 hours is essential.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
The client who displays plantar flexion when the bottom of the foot is stroked is exhibiting a normal reflex response known as the plantar reflex. This response indicates that the corticospinal tract is functioning properly. In adults, the normal response is plantar flexion of the toes, which means the toes curl downward. This is not an immediate cause for concern and does not indicate a life-threatening condition.
Choice B Reason:
The client who consistently demonstrates decortication when stimulated is showing signs of severe brain injury. Decorticate posturing is characterized by the arms being flexed at the elbows and held tightly to the chest, with the legs extended and feet turned inward. This type of posturing indicates damage to the cerebral hemispheres, thalamus, or midbrain. While this is a serious condition, it is not necessarily the most immediate priority compared to a sudden change in the Glasgow Coma Scale.
Choice C Reason:
The client whose Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) has changed from 15 to 12 is the nurse’s first priority. The GCS is a critical tool used to assess a patient’s level of consciousness, with scores ranging from 3 (deep coma) to 15 (fully awake and alert). A drop in GCS score indicates a significant decline in neurological function, which could be due to increased intracranial pressure, bleeding, or other acute changes in the brain. This requires immediate assessment and intervention to prevent further deterioration.
Choice D Reason:
The client whose deep tendon reflexes have become hyperactive is showing signs of hyperreflexia. Hyperactive reflexes can indicate an upper motor neuron lesion, which affects the descending corticospinal tract. While this is a concerning sign that warrants further investigation, it is not as immediately critical as a sudden change in the GCS score.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Hypotension (low blood pressure), tachycardia (rapid heart rate), and lethargy are critical symptoms that can indicate a life-threatening condition such as shock or severe dehydration. Hypotension can lead to inadequate perfusion of vital organs, resulting in multi-organ failure if not promptly addressed1. Tachycardia is often a compensatory mechanism for hypotension, and lethargy indicates decreased cerebral perfusion. Immediate intervention is required to stabilize the patient’s condition and prevent further deterioration.
Choice B reason:
Dizziness with a headache rated 7/10 on the numeric scale is concerning but not immediately life-threatening. These symptoms could indicate a variety of conditions, such as migraine, vertigo, or even a mild concussion. While the patient should be assessed and treated, they do not present the same immediate risk as hypotension and tachycardia.
Choice C reason:
Abdominal pain, hypertension (high blood pressure), and constipation are symptoms that need medical attention but are not immediately life-threatening. Hypertension can lead to serious complications if left untreated, but it does not require the same urgent intervention as hypotension. Abdominal pain and constipation, while uncomfortable and potentially indicative of underlying issues, do not pose an immediate threat to life.
Choice D reason:
Febrile (fever), tachycardia, and vomiting are symptoms that suggest an infection or other acute illness. While these symptoms are concerning and need prompt evaluation, they do not pose the same immediate risk as hypotension and tachycardia. Fever and vomiting can lead to dehydration, but this typically develops over a longer period compared to the rapid deterioration seen with hypotension.
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