A nurse assesses clients on the medical-surgical unit. Which client is at greatest risk for development of obstructive sleep apnea?
A 42-year-old man with gastroesophageal reflux disease
A 55-year-old woman who is 50 lb (23 kg) overweight
A 20-year-old woman who is 8 months pregnant
A 73-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A Reason:
A 42-year-old man with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is not at the highest risk for obstructive sleep apnea (OSA). While GERD can be associated with OSA, it is not a primary risk factor. The main risk factors for OSA include obesity, age, and anatomical features that can obstruct the airway. Therefore, this individual is not at the greatest risk compared to others.
Choice B Reason:
A 55-year-old woman who is 50 lb (23 kg) overweight is at significant risk for developing OSA. Obesity is one of the most critical risk factors for OSA because excess weight can lead to fat deposits around the upper airway, which can obstruct breathing during sleep. Additionally, being overweight increases the likelihood of other conditions that can exacerbate OSA, such as hypertension and metabolic syndrome.
Choice C Reason:
A 20-year-old woman who is 8 months pregnant may experience temporary sleep disturbances, including snoring and mild sleep apnea, due to hormonal changes and increased abdominal pressure. However, pregnancy-related sleep apnea is usually transient and resolves after childbirth. Therefore, while she may have an increased risk during pregnancy, it is not as significant as the risk posed by obesity.
Choice D Reason:
A 73-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus has an increased risk of OSA, as diabetes is associated with obesity and metabolic syndrome, which are risk factors for OSA. However, the presence of diabetes alone does not pose as high a risk as obesity. Therefore, while this individual is at risk, it is not as high as the risk associated with being significantly overweight.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is J
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Gaining weight can be an indicator of improved nutrition, but it does not directly address the client’s ability to swallow safely and effectively. Weight gain could be due to other factors such as fluid retention or changes in metabolism. Therefore, while it is a positive outcome, it is not the best indicator of improved swallowing function.
Choice B Reason:
Choosing preferred items from the menu indicates that the client is engaged in their meal planning and has an appetite. However, it does not directly measure the client’s ability to swallow safely. The client might still have difficulty swallowing even if they are choosing their preferred foods.
Choice C Reason:
Clear understanding and articulation are important for communication and can indicate cognitive improvement. However, this choice does not directly relate to the client’s swallowing ability. The primary concern in this scenario is the client’s ability to swallow safely, not their communication skills.
Choice D Reason:
Eating 75 to 100% of all meals and snacks is the best indicator that the client has improved their swallowing ability. This choice directly measures the client’s ability to consume food and liquids safely and effectively. It shows that the client can manage their meals without significant difficulty, which is the primary goal of the intervention.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: No change to the heparin rate is not appropriate in this scenario. The normal range for PTT is generally between 25 to 35 seconds. However, for a client on heparin therapy, the target PTT is typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal range, which would be approximately 60 to 80 seconds. Since the client’s PTT is only 25 seconds, it indicates that the blood is clotting too quickly, and the heparin dose is insufficient.
Choice B reason: Decreasing the heparin rate would further reduce the anticoagulant effect, which is not advisable given the current PTT of 25 seconds. Lowering the heparin rate could increase the risk of thrombus formation and worsen the deep vein thrombosis (DVT) condition.
Choice C reason: Stopping heparin and starting warfarin is not an immediate solution. Warfarin takes several days to achieve its full anticoagulant effect, and during this transition period, the client would be at risk of clot formation. Heparin provides immediate anticoagulation, which is crucial in the acute management of DVT.
Choice D reason: Increasing the heparin rate is the correct action. The current PTT of 25 seconds is below the therapeutic range for a client on heparin therapy. Increasing the heparin rate will help achieve the desired anticoagulant effect, prolonging the PTT to the target range of 60 to 80 seconds.
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