A nurse assesses clients on the medical-surgical unit. Which client is at greatest risk for development of obstructive sleep apnea?
A 42-year-old man with gastroesophageal reflux disease
A 55-year-old woman who is 50 lb (23 kg) overweight
A 20-year-old woman who is 8 months pregnant
A 73-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A Reason:
A 42-year-old man with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is not at the highest risk for obstructive sleep apnea (OSA). While GERD can be associated with OSA, it is not a primary risk factor. The main risk factors for OSA include obesity, age, and anatomical features that can obstruct the airway. Therefore, this individual is not at the greatest risk compared to others.
Choice B Reason:
A 55-year-old woman who is 50 lb (23 kg) overweight is at significant risk for developing OSA. Obesity is one of the most critical risk factors for OSA because excess weight can lead to fat deposits around the upper airway, which can obstruct breathing during sleep. Additionally, being overweight increases the likelihood of other conditions that can exacerbate OSA, such as hypertension and metabolic syndrome.
Choice C Reason:
A 20-year-old woman who is 8 months pregnant may experience temporary sleep disturbances, including snoring and mild sleep apnea, due to hormonal changes and increased abdominal pressure. However, pregnancy-related sleep apnea is usually transient and resolves after childbirth. Therefore, while she may have an increased risk during pregnancy, it is not as significant as the risk posed by obesity.
Choice D Reason:
A 73-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus has an increased risk of OSA, as diabetes is associated with obesity and metabolic syndrome, which are risk factors for OSA. However, the presence of diabetes alone does not pose as high a risk as obesity. Therefore, while this individual is at risk, it is not as high as the risk associated with being significantly overweight.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["31"]
Explanation
Let’s calculate the IV infusion rate step by step.
Step 1: Determine the total volume to be infused.
The total volume ordered is 1,000 mL.
Step 2: Determine the total time for the infusion.
The total time is 8 hours.
Step 3: Calculate the infusion rate in mL per hour.
Total volume (1,000 mL) ÷ Total time (8 hours) = 125 mL per hour.
Result: 125
Step 4: Determine the drop factor.
The IV tubing delivers 15 drops per milliliter.
Step 5: Calculate the infusion rate in drops per minute.
Infusion rate (125 mL per hour) × Drop factor (15 drops per mL) = 1,875 drops per hour.
Result: 1,875
Step 6: Convert the infusion rate to drops per minute.
Total drops per hour (1,875 drops) ÷ 60 minutes = 31.25 drops per minute.
Result: 31.25
Step 7: Round the result to the nearest whole number if necessary.
31.25 rounded to the nearest whole number is 31.
The nurse should run the IV infusion at a rate of 31 drops per minute.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A: Metformin
Reason: Metformin is known to interact with contrast material, particularly iodinated contrast media, and can increase the risk of acute kidney injury (AKI). This interaction can lead to a condition known as contrast-induced nephropathy (CIN) or contrast-induced acute kidney injury (CI-AKI). Metformin is primarily excreted by the kidneys, and impaired renal function can lead to its accumulation, increasing the risk of lactic acidosis, a rare but serious complication. Therefore, it is generally recommended to withhold metformin before and after the administration of contrast media until renal function is confirmed to be normal.
Choice B: Carvedilol
Reason: Carvedilol is a beta-blocker used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure. It does not have a known interaction with contrast media that would increase the risk of acute kidney injury. Carvedilol primarily affects the cardiovascular system and does not significantly impact renal function or interact with contrast agents.
Choice C: Nitroglycerin
Reason: Nitroglycerin is used to treat angina and other heart conditions by dilating blood vessels. It does not interact with contrast media in a way that would increase the risk of acute kidney injury. Nitroglycerin’s primary effects are on the cardiovascular system, and it does not have nephrotoxic properties.
Choice D: Atorvastatin
Reason: Atorvastatin is a statin used to lower cholesterol levels. While it can have effects on liver enzymes and muscle tissue, it does not interact with contrast media to increase the risk of acute kidney injury. Atorvastatin is metabolized by the liver and does not significantly impact renal function.
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