A nurse assesses clients on the medical-surgical unit. Which client is at greatest risk for development of obstructive sleep apnea?
A 42-year-old man with gastroesophageal reflux disease
A 55-year-old woman who is 50 lb (23 kg) overweight
A 20-year-old woman who is 8 months pregnant
A 73-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A Reason:
A 42-year-old man with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is not at the highest risk for obstructive sleep apnea (OSA). While GERD can be associated with OSA, it is not a primary risk factor. The main risk factors for OSA include obesity, age, and anatomical features that can obstruct the airway. Therefore, this individual is not at the greatest risk compared to others.
Choice B Reason:
A 55-year-old woman who is 50 lb (23 kg) overweight is at significant risk for developing OSA. Obesity is one of the most critical risk factors for OSA because excess weight can lead to fat deposits around the upper airway, which can obstruct breathing during sleep. Additionally, being overweight increases the likelihood of other conditions that can exacerbate OSA, such as hypertension and metabolic syndrome.
Choice C Reason:
A 20-year-old woman who is 8 months pregnant may experience temporary sleep disturbances, including snoring and mild sleep apnea, due to hormonal changes and increased abdominal pressure. However, pregnancy-related sleep apnea is usually transient and resolves after childbirth. Therefore, while she may have an increased risk during pregnancy, it is not as significant as the risk posed by obesity.
Choice D Reason:
A 73-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus has an increased risk of OSA, as diabetes is associated with obesity and metabolic syndrome, which are risk factors for OSA. However, the presence of diabetes alone does not pose as high a risk as obesity. Therefore, while this individual is at risk, it is not as high as the risk associated with being significantly overweight.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Malfunction of the alarm button is unlikely to be the cause of increased peak airway pressure. The alarm is designed to alert the nurse to a problem with the ventilator or the patient’s airway, not to malfunction itself. Therefore, this is not the first thing the nurse should assess.
Choice B Reason:
A cut or slice in the tubing from the ventilator could cause a loss of pressure or air leak, but it would not typically result in increased peak airway pressure. Instead, it would likely cause a decrease in pressure and potentially trigger a different alarm.
Choice C Reason:
Higher than normal endotracheal cuff pressure can contribute to increased peak airway pressure. However, it is not the most immediate concern compared to a kink in the tubing, which can completely obstruct airflow and rapidly compromise the patient’s ventilation.
Choice D Reason:
A kink in the ventilator tubing is a common and immediate cause of increased peak airway pressure. It obstructs the flow of air, leading to a buildup of pressure in the system. This is the first thing the nurse should assess and correct to ensure the patient is receiving adequate ventilation.

Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Telling his wife what the client needs is not the most effective discharge action. While it is important for the wife to understand the client’s needs, this approach is too passive and does not actively engage the client or his wife in the care process. Effective management of Parkinson’s disease requires active participation from both the client and the caregiver to ensure adherence to the care plan and to address any concerns or preferences they may have.
Choice B Reason:
Setting up visitations by a home health nurse can be beneficial, but it is not the most effective discharge action on its own. Home health nurses can provide valuable support and monitoring, but the success of the management plan also depends on the involvement and commitment of the client and his wife. Without their active participation, the care plan may not be fully effective.
Choice C Reason:
Involving the client and his wife in developing a plan of care is the most effective discharge action. This approach ensures that both the client and his wife are fully engaged in the care process, understand the management plan, and are more likely to adhere to it. Collaborative care planning allows for the consideration of the client’s and caregiver’s preferences, needs, and concerns, leading to a more personalized and effective care plan. This active involvement can also empower the client and his wife, improving their confidence in managing the disease.

Choice D Reason:
Writing up a detailed plan of care according to standards is important, but it is not the most effective discharge action if done in isolation. A standardized care plan may not address the unique needs and preferences of the client and his wife. Without their involvement in the development of the plan, there may be a lack of understanding or commitment to the care plan, reducing its effectiveness. Personalizing the care plan through active involvement of the client and his wife is crucial for successful management.
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