A nurse suspects a client has diabetes insipidus. What are the priority interventions? Select all that apply.
Monitor for hypernatremia.
Monitor neuro status.
Monitor for hyponatremia.
Monitor urine specific gravity.
Monitor strict I&O.
Correct Answer : A
Choice A: Monitor for hypernatremia.
Hypernatremia, or high sodium levels in the blood, is a common complication of diabetes insipidus due to excessive water loss and insufficient water intake. Monitoring for hypernatremia involves regular blood tests to check sodium levels. Symptoms of hypernatremia include extreme thirst, confusion, muscle twitching, and seizures. Early detection and management are crucial to prevent severe complications.
Choice B: Monitor neuro status.
Monitoring neurological status is essential in patients with diabetes insipidus because severe hypernatremia can lead to neurological symptoms such as confusion, irritability, seizures, and even coma. Regular assessments of mental status, level of consciousness, and neurological function help in early detection of complications and timely intervention.
Choice C: Monitor for hyponatremia.
While hyponatremia (low sodium levels) is less common in diabetes insipidus, it can occur if there is excessive water intake without adequate sodium replacement. Symptoms include headache, nausea, vomiting, confusion, and seizures. Monitoring sodium levels helps in maintaining a balance and preventing complications.
Choice D: Monitor urine specific gravity.
Urine specific gravity measures the concentration of solutes in the urine. In diabetes insipidus, urine is typically very dilute, with a specific gravity of less than 1.005. Regular monitoring helps in assessing the effectiveness of treatment and the patient’s hydration status. It also aids in differentiating diabetes insipidus from other conditions with similar symptoms.
Choice E: Monitor strict I&O.
Strict monitoring of intake and output (I&O) is crucial in managing diabetes insipidus. This involves accurately measuring all fluids consumed and excreted to ensure proper hydration and electrolyte balance. It helps in identifying trends in fluid loss and guiding appropriate fluid replacement therapy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A: He is NPO until the speech-language pathologist performs a swallowing evaluation.
When a client is admitted with a stroke, especially one affecting the left side, there is a significant risk of dysphagia, or difficulty swallowing. This can lead to choking and aspiration, which can cause pneumonia and other complications. Therefore, it is crucial to keep the client NPO (nothing by mouth) until a speech-language pathologist can perform a thorough swallowing evaluation. This ensures that the client can safely swallow without the risk of aspiration. The speech-language pathologist will assess the client’s ability to swallow different textures and consistencies of food and liquids and provide recommendations for safe feeding.

Choice B: Be sure to sit him up when you are feeding him to make him feel more natural.
While sitting the client up during feeding is a good practice to reduce the risk of aspiration, it is not sufficient on its own for a client who has just had a stroke. Without a proper swallowing evaluation, feeding the client could still pose a significant risk. Therefore, this choice is not the most appropriate response.
Choice C: You may give him a full-liquid diet, but please avoid solid foods until he gets stronger.
A full-liquid diet might seem like a safer option, but it still poses a risk of aspiration if the client has dysphagia. Without a swallowing evaluation, it is not safe to assume that the client can handle even a full-liquid diet. Therefore, this choice is not appropriate.
Choice D: Just be sure to add some thickener in his liquids to prevent choking and aspiration.
Adding thickener to liquids can help some clients with dysphagia, but it is not a one-size-fits-all solution. The appropriate consistency of liquids should be determined by a speech-language pathologist after a swallowing evaluation. Therefore, this choice is not appropriate without a prior assessment.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Monitoring the heart rate is crucial when administering amiodarone, as this drug can cause bradycardia (a slower than normal heart rate). Amiodarone affects the electrical conduction system of the heart, and close monitoring helps ensure that the heart rate remains within a safe range. The normal resting heart rate for adults is typically between 60 and 100 beats per minute.
Choice B reason: Respiratory rate monitoring is essential because amiodarone can cause pulmonary toxicity, which may manifest as interstitial pneumonitis or pulmonary fibrosis. Early detection of respiratory changes can help prevent severe complications. The normal respiratory rate for adults is 12 to 20 breaths per minute.
Choice C reason: Monitoring heart rhythm is necessary because amiodarone is used to treat arrhythmias, and it can also cause new arrhythmias or exacerbate existing ones. Continuous ECG monitoring helps detect any abnormal rhythms early, allowing for prompt intervention. Normal sinus rhythm is characterized by a regular rhythm with a rate of 60 to 100 beats per minute.
Choice D reason: Cardiac output monitoring is important because amiodarone can affect the contractility of the heart and overall cardiac function. Cardiac output is a measure of the amount of blood the heart pumps in one minute, and it is crucial for ensuring adequate tissue perfusion. Normal cardiac output ranges from 4 to 8 liters per minute in adults.
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