A nurse suspects a client has diabetes insipidus. What are the priority interventions? Select all that apply.

Monitor for hypernatremia.

Monitor neuro status.

Monitor for hyponatremia.

Monitor urine specific gravity.

Monitor strict I&O.

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : A

Choice A: Monitor for hypernatremia.

Hypernatremia, or high sodium levels in the blood, is a common complication of diabetes insipidus due to excessive water loss and insufficient water intake. Monitoring for hypernatremia involves regular blood tests to check sodium levels. Symptoms of hypernatremia include extreme thirst, confusion, muscle twitching, and seizures. Early detection and management are crucial to prevent severe complications.

Choice B: Monitor neuro status.

Monitoring neurological status is essential in patients with diabetes insipidus because severe hypernatremia can lead to neurological symptoms such as confusion, irritability, seizures, and even coma. Regular assessments of mental status, level of consciousness, and neurological function help in early detection of complications and timely intervention.

Choice C: Monitor for hyponatremia.

While hyponatremia (low sodium levels) is less common in diabetes insipidus, it can occur if there is excessive water intake without adequate sodium replacement. Symptoms include headache, nausea, vomiting, confusion, and seizures. Monitoring sodium levels helps in maintaining a balance and preventing complications.

Choice D: Monitor urine specific gravity.

Urine specific gravity measures the concentration of solutes in the urine. In diabetes insipidus, urine is typically very dilute, with a specific gravity of less than 1.005. Regular monitoring helps in assessing the effectiveness of treatment and the patient’s hydration status. It also aids in differentiating diabetes insipidus from other conditions with similar symptoms.

Choice E: Monitor strict I&O.

Strict monitoring of intake and output (I&O) is crucial in managing diabetes insipidus. This involves accurately measuring all fluids consumed and excreted to ensure proper hydration and electrolyte balance. It helps in identifying trends in fluid loss and guiding appropriate fluid replacement therapy.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A Reason:

A decreased thyroxine (T4) level is not expected in a client with Graves’ disease. Graves’ disease is an autoimmune disorder that leads to hyperthyroidism, where the thyroid gland produces excessive amounts of thyroid hormones, including T4. Therefore, the T4 level is typically elevated, not decreased.

Choice B Reason:

Similarly, a decreased triiodothyronine (T3) level is not expected in Graves’ disease. Like T4, T3 levels are usually elevated due to the overactive thyroid gland. T3 is the active form of thyroid hormone and is often increased in hyperthyroid conditions.

Choice C Reason:

Decreased thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins (TSI) percentage is incorrect. In Graves’ disease, TSI levels are elevated because these antibodies stimulate the thyroid gland to produce more thyroid hormones. TSI mimics the action of TSH, leading to increased production of T3 and T4.

Choice D Reason:

Decreased thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level is the correct answer. In Graves’ disease, the excessive thyroid hormones (T3 and T4) exert negative feedback on the pituitary gland, leading to suppressed TSH production. Therefore, TSH levels are typically low in patients with Graves’ disease.

A. Assess the client’s oxygen saturation and, if normal, turn off the oxygen. B. Have the client lift the mask off the face when taking bites of food. C. Turn the oxygen off while the client eats the meal and then restart it. D. Determine if the client can switch to a nasal cannula during the meal

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A Reason:

Assess the client’s oxygen saturation and, if normal, turn off the oxygen. This option is not ideal because turning off the oxygen completely can lead to a rapid drop in oxygen saturation levels, especially in patients who require continuous oxygen therapy. Monitoring oxygen saturation is crucial, but turning off the oxygen is not recommended unless specifically advised by a healthcare provider. Normal oxygen saturation levels typically range from 95% to 100%1. If the levels drop below 90%, it can lead to hypoxemia, which can cause serious complications.

Choice B Reason:

Have the client lift the mask off the face when taking bites of food. This option is also not ideal because it can be cumbersome for the client and may lead to inconsistent oxygen delivery. The Venturi mask is designed to provide a precise concentration of oxygen, and lifting it off repeatedly can disrupt this consistency. Additionally, it can be uncomfortable and impractical for the client to manage the mask while eating.

Choice C Reason:

Turn the oxygen off while the client eats the meal and then restart it. This option is not recommended for similar reasons as Choice A. Turning off the oxygen can lead to a significant drop in oxygen saturation levels, which can be dangerous for the client. Continuous oxygen therapy is essential for maintaining adequate oxygen levels in patients who require it. Interrupting this therapy, even temporarily, can have adverse effects on the client’s health.

Choice D Reason:

Determine if the client can switch to a nasal cannula during the meal. This is the best option because a nasal cannula allows the client to receive continuous oxygen while eating. The nasal cannula is less obtrusive and more comfortable for the client, enabling them to eat without significant interruption to their oxygen therapy. Nasal cannulas are commonly used for patients who need supplemental oxygen but also need to perform activities such as eating and talking. This approach ensures that the client maintains adequate oxygen levels while having their meal.

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A nurse suspects a client has diabetes insipidus. What are the priority interventions? Select all that apply.

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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