A client is receiving baclofen for the management of symptoms associated with multiple sclerosis. To evaluate the effectiveness of this medication, what does the nurse assess?
Muscle spasms
Mood and affect
Appetite
Sleep pattern
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason:
Baclofen is primarily used to treat muscle symptoms caused by multiple sclerosis, including muscle spasms, stiffness, and pain1. It acts on the spinal cord nerves to decrease the number and severity of muscle spasms, thereby improving muscle movement2. The effectiveness of baclofen in managing multiple sclerosis symptoms is best evaluated by assessing the reduction in muscle spasms.

Choice B reason:
While mood and affect are important aspects of a patient’s overall well-being, they are not the primary indicators of baclofen’s effectiveness. Baclofen does not have a direct impact on mood and affect, as its main function is to relieve muscle spasms and improve muscle movement.
Choice C reason:
Appetite is not a primary concern when evaluating the effectiveness of baclofen. This medication is not known to significantly affect appetite. The main therapeutic goal of baclofen is to reduce muscle spasms and improve mobility in patients with multiple sclerosis.
Choice D reason:
Sleep pattern, although important for overall health, is not the primary measure of baclofen’s effectiveness. Baclofen’s primary role is to alleviate muscle spasms and improve muscle function. While it may have some impact on sleep due to its muscle-relaxing properties, this is not the main criterion for evaluating its effectiveness.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Assess the client’s oxygen saturation and, if normal, turn off the oxygen. This option is not ideal because turning off the oxygen completely can lead to a rapid drop in oxygen saturation levels, especially in patients who require continuous oxygen therapy. Monitoring oxygen saturation is crucial, but turning off the oxygen is not recommended unless specifically advised by a healthcare provider. Normal oxygen saturation levels typically range from 95% to 100%1. If the levels drop below 90%, it can lead to hypoxemia, which can cause serious complications.
Choice B Reason:
Have the client lift the mask off the face when taking bites of food. This option is also not ideal because it can be cumbersome for the client and may lead to inconsistent oxygen delivery. The Venturi mask is designed to provide a precise concentration of oxygen, and lifting it off repeatedly can disrupt this consistency. Additionally, it can be uncomfortable and impractical for the client to manage the mask while eating.
Choice C Reason:
Turn the oxygen off while the client eats the meal and then restart it. This option is not recommended for similar reasons as Choice A. Turning off the oxygen can lead to a significant drop in oxygen saturation levels, which can be dangerous for the client. Continuous oxygen therapy is essential for maintaining adequate oxygen levels in patients who require it. Interrupting this therapy, even temporarily, can have adverse effects on the client’s health.
Choice D Reason:
Determine if the client can switch to a nasal cannula during the meal. This is the best option because a nasal cannula allows the client to receive continuous oxygen while eating. The nasal cannula is less obtrusive and more comfortable for the client, enabling them to eat without significant interruption to their oxygen therapy. Nasal cannulas are commonly used for patients who need supplemental oxygen but also need to perform activities such as eating and talking. This approach ensures that the client maintains adequate oxygen levels while having their meal.
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A: Instruct the patient to withhold any medication for diuretic therapy.
Reason: Diuretics can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, which can complicate the cardiac catheterization procedure. Withholding diuretics helps to maintain fluid balance and reduce the risk of complications during the procedure
Choice B: Prepare to administer fluids 2 hours before the procedure for patients with renal dysfunction.
Reason: Administering fluids before the procedure helps to prevent contrast-induced nephropathy, especially in patients with renal dysfunction. Hydration helps to flush out the contrast material used during the procedure, reducing the risk of kidney damage.
Choice C: Advise the patient to take all anticoagulants.
Reason: This choice is incorrect. Patients are usually advised to withhold anticoagulants before a cardiac catheterization to reduce the risk of bleeding complications. The decision to continue or withhold anticoagulants should be based on a careful assessment of the patient’s risk of thromboembolism versus the risk of bleeding.
Choice D: Administer steroids if the patient has an allergy to iodine-based contrast.
Reason: Administering steroids is a common premedication strategy for patients with a known allergy to iodine-based contrast media. Steroids help to reduce the risk of an allergic reaction during the procedure.
Choice E: Ensure that the patient is NPO for a minimum of 2 hours before the procedure.
Reason: Ensuring that the patient is NPO (nothing by mouth) helps to reduce the risk of aspiration during the procedure. Typically, patients are advised to be NPO for 6-8 hours before the procedure, but a minimum of 2 hours is essential.
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