A client with Parkinson’s disease (PD) is being discharged home with his wife. To ensure success with the management plan, which discharge action is most effective?
Telling his wife what the client needs.
Setting up visitations by a home health nurse.
Involving the client and his wife in developing a plan of care.
Writing up a detailed plan of care according to standards.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A Reason:
Telling his wife what the client needs is not the most effective discharge action. While it is important for the wife to understand the client’s needs, this approach is too passive and does not actively engage the client or his wife in the care process. Effective management of Parkinson’s disease requires active participation from both the client and the caregiver to ensure adherence to the care plan and to address any concerns or preferences they may have.
Choice B Reason:
Setting up visitations by a home health nurse can be beneficial, but it is not the most effective discharge action on its own. Home health nurses can provide valuable support and monitoring, but the success of the management plan also depends on the involvement and commitment of the client and his wife. Without their active participation, the care plan may not be fully effective.
Choice C Reason:
Involving the client and his wife in developing a plan of care is the most effective discharge action. This approach ensures that both the client and his wife are fully engaged in the care process, understand the management plan, and are more likely to adhere to it. Collaborative care planning allows for the consideration of the client’s and caregiver’s preferences, needs, and concerns, leading to a more personalized and effective care plan. This active involvement can also empower the client and his wife, improving their confidence in managing the disease.
Choice D Reason:
Writing up a detailed plan of care according to standards is important, but it is not the most effective discharge action if done in isolation. A standardized care plan may not address the unique needs and preferences of the client and his wife. Without their involvement in the development of the plan, there may be a lack of understanding or commitment to the care plan, reducing its effectiveness. Personalizing the care plan through active involvement of the client and his wife is crucial for successful management.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A: Instruct the patient to withhold any medication for diuretic therapy.
Reason: Diuretics can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, which can complicate the cardiac catheterization procedure. Withholding diuretics helps to maintain fluid balance and reduce the risk of complications during the procedure
Choice B: Prepare to administer fluids 2 hours before the procedure for patients with renal dysfunction.
Reason: Administering fluids before the procedure helps to prevent contrast-induced nephropathy, especially in patients with renal dysfunction. Hydration helps to flush out the contrast material used during the procedure, reducing the risk of kidney damage.
Choice C: Advise the patient to take all anticoagulants.
Reason: This choice is incorrect. Patients are usually advised to withhold anticoagulants before a cardiac catheterization to reduce the risk of bleeding complications. The decision to continue or withhold anticoagulants should be based on a careful assessment of the patient’s risk of thromboembolism versus the risk of bleeding.
Choice D: Administer steroids if the patient has an allergy to iodine-based contrast.
Reason: Administering steroids is a common premedication strategy for patients with a known allergy to iodine-based contrast media. Steroids help to reduce the risk of an allergic reaction during the procedure.
Choice E: Ensure that the patient is NPO for a minimum of 2 hours before the procedure.
Reason: Ensuring that the patient is NPO (nothing by mouth) helps to reduce the risk of aspiration during the procedure. Typically, patients are advised to be NPO for 6-8 hours before the procedure, but a minimum of 2 hours is essential.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
A decreased thyroxine (T4) level is not expected in a client with Graves’ disease. Graves’ disease is an autoimmune disorder that leads to hyperthyroidism, where the thyroid gland produces excessive amounts of thyroid hormones, including T4. Therefore, the T4 level is typically elevated, not decreased.
Choice B Reason:
Similarly, a decreased triiodothyronine (T3) level is not expected in Graves’ disease. Like T4, T3 levels are usually elevated due to the overactive thyroid gland. T3 is the active form of thyroid hormone and is often increased in hyperthyroid conditions.
Choice C Reason:
Decreased thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins (TSI) percentage is incorrect. In Graves’ disease, TSI levels are elevated because these antibodies stimulate the thyroid gland to produce more thyroid hormones. TSI mimics the action of TSH, leading to increased production of T3 and T4.
Choice D Reason:
Decreased thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level is the correct answer. In Graves’ disease, the excessive thyroid hormones (T3 and T4) exert negative feedback on the pituitary gland, leading to suppressed TSH production. Therefore, TSH levels are typically low in patients with Graves’ disease.
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